As Introduced

136th General Assembly

Regular Session H. B. No. 128

2025-2026

A BILL

To amend sections 109.572, 2305.11, 2317.02, 2919.10, 2919.12, 2953.25, 3701.341, 3701.792, 3702.30, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4729.291, 4731.22, 4731.223, 4731.281, 4731.293, and 4743.09; to enact sections 2305.2312, 3732.01, 3732.02, 3732.03, 3732.04, 3732.05, 3732.06, 3732.07, 3732.08, 3732.09, and 3732.11; and to repeal sections 2307.54, 2317.56, 2317.561, 2919.101, 2919.124, 2919.171, 2919.19, 2919.191, 2919.192, 2919.193, 2919.194, 2919.195, 2919.196, 2919.197, 2919.198, 2919.199, 2919.1910, 2919.1912, 2919.1913, 2919.20, 2919.201, 2919.202, 2919.203, 2919.204, 2919.205, 3701.79, 3701.791, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3702.308, 3702.309, 3702.3010, 3702.3011, 3726.01, 3726.02, 3726.03, 3726.04, 3726.041, 3726.042, 3726.05, 3726.09, 3726.10, 3726.11, 3726.12, 3726.13, 3726.14, 3726.15, 3726.16, 3726.95, 3726.99, 3727.60, 4717.271, 5101.57, and 5103.11 of the Revised Code to enact the Reproductive Care Act regarding abortion, abortion-related laws, and reproductive health protections.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

Section 1. That sections 109.572, 2305.11, 2317.02, 2919.10, 2919.12, 2953.25, 3701.341, 3701.792, 3702.30, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4729.291, 4731.22, 4731.223, 4731.281, 4731.293, and 4743.09 be amended and sections 2305.2312, 3732.01, 3732.02, 3732.03, 3732.04, 3732.05, 3732.06, 3732.07, 3732.08, 3732.09, and 3732.11 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.06, 2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.19, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.17, 2923.21, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.31, 2925.32, 2925.36, 2925.37, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of this section;

(c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense specified under section 9.79 of the Revised Code or in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.

(2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in a position for which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.

(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 173.38, 173.381, 3740.11, 5119.34, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, ~~2919.124,~~ 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;

(b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;

(d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;

(e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.

(4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 or 2151.904 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 959.13, 2151.421, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.06, 2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.32, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.19, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.17, 2923.21, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.31, 2925.32, 2925.36, 2925.37, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations committed within the three years immediately preceding the submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, or a violation of Chapter 2919. of the Revised Code that is a felony;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.

(5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2151.421, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.19, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.224, 2919.225, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.14, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or certification.

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in division (A)(5)(a) of this section.

(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense;

(b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.

(7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or in any other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall require information from the federal bureau of investigation as described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.

(8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 1321.53, or 4763.05 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or certification from the department of commerce or a division in the department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state, any other state, or the United States.

(9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code or from an individual under section 928.03, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4729.53, 4729.90, 4729.92, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4747.051, 4751.20, 4751.201, 4751.21, 4753.061, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4774.031, 4774.06, 4776.021, 4778.04, 4778.07, 4779.091, or 4783.04 of the Revised Code, accompanied by a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board specified by the individual in the request.

(10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 124.74, 718.131, 1121.23, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that makes the person ineligible for appointment or retention under section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or that is a disqualifying offense as defined in that section or substantially equivalent to a disqualifying offense, as applicable.

(12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check is required under that section. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:

(b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.

(13) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3796.12 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a disqualifying offense as specified in rules adopted under section 9.79 and division (B)(2)(b) of section 3796.03 of the Revised Code if the person who is the subject of the request is an administrator or other person responsible for the daily operation of, or an owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member of, an entity seeking a license from the department of commerce under Chapter 3796. of the Revised Code.

(14) On receipt of a request required by section 3796.13 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a disqualifying offense as specified in rules adopted under division (B)(14)(a) of section 3796.03 of the Revised Code if the person who is the subject of the request is seeking employment with an entity licensed by the department of commerce under Chapter 3796. of the Revised Code.

(15) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 4768.06 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or in any other state.

(16) On receipt of a request pursuant to division (B) of section 4764.07 or division (A) of section 4735.143 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in any state or the United States.

(17) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check under section 147.022 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(18) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to division (F) of section 2915.081 or division (E) of section 2915.082 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense that is a violation of Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code or to any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to such an offense.

(19) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3775.03 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of this section and shall request information from the federal bureau of investigation to determine whether any information exists indicating that the person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of any offense under any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.

(B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be conducted under this section as follows:

(1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including, if the criminal records check was requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 124.74, 173.27, 173.38, 173.381, 718.131, 928.03, 1121.23, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3740.11, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 3775.03, 3796.12, 3796.13, 4729.071, 4729.53, 4729.90, 4729.92, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 4764.07, 4768.06, 5104.013, 5164.34, 5164.341, 5164.342, 5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;

(2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to section 2151.86 or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.

(3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may request criminal history records from other states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.

(4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the criminal records check a list or description of the offenses listed or described in the relevant provision of division (A) of this section. The superintendent shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law.

(5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later than the following number of days after the date the superintendent receives the request for the criminal records check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:

(a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct the criminal records check, thirty;

(b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.

(C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.

(3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for providing a criminal records check under this section. The person requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 2151.412, or 5164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid in the manner specified in that section.

(4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation may prescribe methods of forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but not be limited to, an electronic method.

(D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under this section, other than a criminal records check specified in division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal records check. If during that period the superintendent receives another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the results from the previous criminal records check of the person at a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal records check.

(E) When the superintendent receives a request for information from a registered private provider, the superintendent shall proceed as if the request was received from a school district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.

(F)(1) Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, all information regarding the results of a criminal records check conducted under this section that the superintendent reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense.

(2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, or preclude the superintendent's release of information that relates to the arrest of a person who is eighteen years of age or older, to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen years of age in circumstances in which a release of that nature is authorized under division (E)(2), (3), or (4) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code pursuant to a rule adopted under division (E)(1) of that section.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.

(3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or entity registered with the department of education and workforce under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship program.

Sec. 2305.11. (A) An action for libel, slander, malicious prosecution, or false imprisonment, an action for malpractice other than an action upon a medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim, an action for legal malpractice against an attorney or a law firm or legal professional association, or an action upon a statute for a penalty or forfeiture shall be commenced within one year after the cause of action accrued, provided that an action by an employee for the payment of unpaid minimum wages, unpaid overtime compensation, or liquidated damages by reason of the nonpayment of minimum wages or overtime compensation shall be commenced within two years after the cause of action accrued.

(B) A civil action for unlawful abortion pursuant to section 2919.12 of the Revised Code~~, a civil action authorized by division (H) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code,~~ and a civil action pursuant to division (B) of section 2307.52 of the Revised Code for terminating or attempting to terminate a human pregnancy after viability in violation of division (A) of section 2919.17 of the Revised Code~~, and a civil action for terminating or attempting to terminate a human pregnancy of a pain-capable unborn child in violation of division (E) of section 2919.201 of the Revised Code~~ shall be commenced within one year after the performance or inducement of the abortion or within one year after the attempt to perform or induce the abortion in violation of division (A) of section 2919.17 of the Revised Code ~~or division (E) of section 2919.201 of the Revised Code~~.

(C) As used in this section, "medical claim," "dental claim," "optometric claim," and "chiropractic claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2305.2312. As used in this section, "reproductive health care" and "reproductive health care helper" have the same meanings as in section 3732.07 of the Revised Code.

Except as provided in sections 2307.52, 2307.53, 2307.54, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.13, 2919.14, 2919.15, 2919.151, 2919.16, and 2919.17 of the Revised Code, a health care provider providing reproductive health care, a health care facility where reproductive health care is provided, an individual seeking or accessing reproductive health care, or a reproductive health care helper is not liable for or subject to any of the following for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from any act or omission associated with providing reproductive health care: damages in a civil action, prosecution in a criminal proceeding, or professional disciplinary action. This section does not apply if the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct or reckless disregard for the consequences so as to affect the life or health of the patient.

Sec. 2317.02. The following persons shall not testify in certain respects:

(A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the attorney by a client in that relation or concerning the attorney's advice to a client, except that the attorney may testify by express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased, by the express consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client. However, if the client voluntarily reveals the substance of attorney-client communications in a nonprivileged context or is deemed by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, the attorney may be compelled to testify on the same subject.

The testimonial privilege established under this division does not apply concerning either of the following:

(a) A communication between a client in a capital case, as defined in section 2901.02 of the Revised Code, and the client's attorney if the communication is relevant to a subsequent ineffective assistance of counsel claim by the client alleging that the attorney did not effectively represent the client in the case;

(b) A communication between a client who has since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the dispute.

(2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.

(B)(1) A physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist concerning a communication made to the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist by a patient in that relation or the advice of a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist given to a patient, except as otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division (B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, the physician or advanced practice registered nurse may be compelled to testify on the same subject.

The testimonial privilege established under this division does not apply, and a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:

(a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:

(i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal representative of the patient gives express consent;

(ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives express consent;

(iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal representative.

(b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.

(c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results of any test that determines the presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal offense in question.

(d) In any criminal action against a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist. In such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or dental records or other communications between a patient and the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist that are related to the action and obtained by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that permits or compels a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist to testify in such an action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient records or other communications in such an action shall require that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

(e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has since died and the deceased patient's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist, the communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the dispute.

(ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.

(iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.

(iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.

(v) A person to whom protected health information is disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information was requested and shall return the protected health information to the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or proceeding.

(2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written statement to a health care provider that states that an official criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain to any test or the results of any test administered to the specified person to determine the presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the health care provider does not possess any of the requested records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the requested records.

(b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who administered the test to which the records pertain, the person under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian of the records, the person who made the records, or the person under whose supervision the records were made.

(3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division (B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist may be compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the advice of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist given to the patient in question, that related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.

(b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist as provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who administered the test in question, the person under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision the results were compiled.

(4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of this section is not waived when a communication is made by a physician or advanced practice registered nurse to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient or advanced practice registered nurse-patient relation.

(5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, "communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to enable a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist to diagnose, treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.

(b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care practitioner.

(i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. "Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private office of a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or group practice.

(ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency department or any other facility that provides emergency medical services.

(iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.

(iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.

(v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; a skilled nursing facility, as defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.

(vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.

(d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, "drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, doctors of podiatry, advanced practice registered nurses, and dentists.

(7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 of the Revised Code upon physicians or advanced practice registered nurses who report an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code and "advanced practice registered nurse" has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by express consent of the person making the communication, except when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred trust.

(2) As used in division (C) of this section:

(a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable church, denomination, or sect.

(b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:

(i) The confession or confidential communication was made directly to the cleric.

(ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.

(D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation has ceased to exist;

(E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be permitted to testify;

(F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or thing.

(G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator license from the state board of education as provided for in section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed professional counselor, social worker, independent social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a confidential communication received from a client in that relation or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following applies:

(a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this division, cases in which there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and present danger.

(b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.

(c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client gives express consent.

(d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on the same subject.

(e) The court in camera determines that the information communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client relationship.

(f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance counselor is relevant to that action.

(g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.

(2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 2151.421 of the Revised Code.

(H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation process, to any information discussed or presented in the mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;

(I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of the communication assistant's authority, when providing telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.

Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege granted under federal law or regulation.

(J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:

(a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal representative of the patient gives express consent.

(b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives express consent.

(c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal representative.

(2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the patient in question, that related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.

(3) The testimonial privilege established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.

(4) As used in this division, "communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A communication may include, but is not limited to, any chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.

(K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this section, a critical incident stress management team member concerning a communication received from an individual who receives crisis response services from the team member, or the team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing session.

(2) The testimonial privilege established under division (K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are true:

(a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of the individual constitute a clear and present danger.

(b) The individual who received crisis response services gives express consent to the testimony.

(c) If the individual who received crisis response services is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.

(d) The individual who received crisis response services voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be compelled to testify on the same subject.

(e) The court in camera determines that the information communicated by the individual who received crisis response services is not germane to the relationship between the individual and the team member.

(f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any criminal act.

(3) As used in division (K) of this section:

(a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services provided by a critical incident stress management team to individuals affected by crisis or disaster.

(b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or "team member" means an individual specially trained to provide crisis response services as a member of an organized community or local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio critical incident stress management network.

(c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis response services are rendered by a critical incident stress management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.

(L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the employee assistance professional by a client in the employee assistance professional's official capacity as an employee assistance professional.

(2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee assistance professional who meets either or both of the following requirements:

(a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;

(b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the following:

(i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address employer and employee productivity issues;

(ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' performance;

(iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;

(iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;

(v) Making appropriate referrals;

(vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;

(vii) Client confidentiality.

(3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of the following:

(a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;

(b) A communication made by a client to an employee assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;

(c) A communication that is made by a client who is an unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;

(d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity is entered;

(e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against the employee assistance professional;

(f) When the employee assistance professional has the express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, the client's legal representative;

(g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.

(M) A patient, concerning the patient's own reproductive health care, including miscarriage and abortion history, unless that patient consents to do so.

Sec. 2919.10. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Down syndrome" means a chromosome disorder associated either with an extra chromosome twenty-one, in whole or in part, or an effective trisomy for chromosome twenty-one.

(2) "Physician," "pregnant," and "unborn child" have the same meanings as in section 2919.16 of the Revised Code.

(B) No person shall purposely perform or induce or attempt to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman if the person has knowledge that the pregnant woman is seeking the abortion, in whole or in part, because of any of the following:

(1) A test result indicating Down syndrome in an unborn child;

(2) A prenatal diagnosis of Down syndrome in an unborn child;

(3) Any other reason to believe that an unborn child has Down syndrome.

(C) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of performing or attempting to perform an abortion that was being sought because of Down syndrome, a felony of the fourth degree.

(D) The state medical board shall revoke a physician's license to practice medicine in this state if the physician violates division (B) of this section.

(E) Any physician who violates division (B) of this section is liable in a civil action for compensatory and exemplary damages and reasonable attorney's fees to any person, or the representative of the estate of any person, who sustains injury, death, or loss to person or property as the result of the performance or inducement or the attempted performance or inducement of the abortion. In any action under this division, the court also may award any injunctive or other equitable relief that the court considers appropriate.

(F) A pregnant woman on whom an abortion is performed or induced or attempted to be performed or induced in violation of division (B) of this section is not guilty of violating division (B) of this section or of attempting to commit, conspiring to commit, or complicity in committing a violation of division (B) of this section.

(G) If any provision of this section is held invalid, or if the application of any provision of this section to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity of that provision does not affect any other provisions or applications of this section and sections 2919.11 to ~~2919.193~~ 2919.18 of the Revised Code that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section and sections 2919.11 to ~~2919.193~~ 2919.18 of the Revised Code are severable as provided in section 1.50 of the Revised Code. In particular, it is the intent of the general assembly that any invalidity or potential invalidity of a provision of this section is not to impair the immediate and continuing enforceability of any other provisions of this section and sections 2919.11 to ~~2919.193~~ 2919.18 of the Revised Code. It is furthermore the intent of the general assembly that the provisions of this section are not to have the effect of repealing or limiting any other laws of this state.

(H) The general assembly may, by joint resolution, appoint one or more of its members who sponsored or cosponsored ___B___of the 132nd general assembly to intervene as a matter of right in any case in which the constitutionality of this section is challenged.

Sec. 2919.12. (A) No person shall perform or induce an abortion without the informed consent of the pregnant woman.

(B)(1)(a) No person shall knowingly perform or induce an abortion upon a woman who is pregnant, unmarried, under eighteen years of age, and unemancipated unless at least one of the following applies:

(i) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the person has given ~~at least twenty-four hours~~ actual notice, in person or by telephone, to one of the woman's parents, her guardian, or her custodian as to the intention to perform or induce the abortion, provided that if the woman has requested, in accordance with division (B)(1)(b) of this section, that notice be given to a specified brother or sister of the woman who is twenty-one years of age or older or to a specified stepparent or grandparent of the woman instead of to one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian, and if the person is notified by a juvenile court that affidavits of the type described in that division have been filed with that court, the ~~twenty-four hours~~ actual notice described in this division as to the intention to perform or induce the abortion shall be given, in person or by telephone, to the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent instead of to the parent, guardian, or custodian;

(ii) One of the woman's parents, her guardian, or her custodian has consented in writing to the performance or inducement of the abortion;

(iii) A juvenile court pursuant to section 2151.85 of the Revised Code issues an order authorizing the woman to consent to the abortion without notification of one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian;

(iv) A juvenile court or a court of appeals, by its inaction, constructively has authorized the woman to consent to the abortion without notification of one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian under division (B)(1) of section 2151.85 or division (A) of section 2505.073 of the Revised Code.

(b) If a woman who is pregnant, unmarried, under eighteen years of age, and unemancipated desires notification as to a person's intention to perform or induce an abortion on the woman to be given to a specified brother or sister of the woman who is twenty-one years of age or older or to a specified stepparent or grandparent of the woman instead of to one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian, the person who intends to perform or induce the abortion shall notify the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent instead of the parent, guardian, or custodian for purposes of division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section if all of the following apply:

(i) The woman has requested the person to provide the notification to the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent, clearly has identified the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent and her relation to that person, and, if the specified relative is a brother or sister, has indicated the age of the brother or sister;

(ii) The woman has executed an affidavit stating that she is in fear of physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse from the parent, guardian, or custodian who otherwise would be notified under division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section, and that the fear is based on a pattern of physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse of her exhibited by that parent, guardian, or custodian, has filed the affidavit with the juvenile court of the county in which the woman has a residence or legal settlement, the juvenile court of any county that borders to any extent the county in which she has a residence or legal settlement, or the juvenile court of the county in which the hospital, clinic, or other facility in which the abortion would be performed or induced is located, and has given the court written notice of the name and address of the person who intends to perform or induce the abortion;

(iii) The specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent has executed an affidavit stating that the woman has reason to fear physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse from the parent, guardian, or custodian who otherwise would be notified under division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section, based on a pattern of physical, sexual, or severe emotional abuse of her by that parent, guardian, or custodian, and the woman or the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent has filed the affidavit with the juvenile court in which the affidavit described in division (B)(1)(b)(ii) of this section was filed;

(iv) The juvenile court in which the affidavits described in divisions (B)(1)(b)(ii) and (iii) of this section were filed has notified the person that both of those affidavits have been filed with the court.

(c) If an affidavit of the type described in division (B)(1)(b)(ii) of this section and an affidavit of the type described in division (B)(1)(b)(iii) of this section are filed with a juvenile court and the court has been provided with written notice of the name and address of the person who intends to perform or induce an abortion upon the woman to whom the affidavits pertain, the court promptly shall notify the person who intends to perform or induce the abortion that the affidavits have been filed. If possible, the notice to the person shall be given in person or by telephone.

(2) If division (B)(1)(a)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section does not apply, and if no parent, guardian, or custodian can be reached for purposes of division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section after a reasonable effort, or if notification is to be given to a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent under that division and the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent cannot be reached for purposes of that division after a reasonable effort, no person shall perform or induce such an abortion without giving at least forty-eight hours constructive notice to one of the woman's parents, her guardian, or her custodian, by both certified and ordinary mail sent to the last known address of the parent, guardian, or custodian, or if notification for purposes of division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section is to be given to a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent, without giving at least forty-eight hours constructive notice to that specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent by both certified and ordinary mail sent to the last known address of that specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent. The forty-eight-hour period under this division begins when the certified mail notice is mailed. If a parent, guardian, or custodian of the woman, or if notification under division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section is to be given to a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent, the specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent, is not reached within the forty-eight-hour period, the abortion may proceed even if the certified mail notice is not received.

(3) If a parent, guardian, custodian, or specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent who has been notified in accordance with division (B)(1) or (2) of this section clearly and unequivocally expresses that ~~he or she~~ such person does not wish to consult with a pregnant woman prior to her abortion, then the abortion may proceed without any further waiting period.

(4) For purposes of prosecutions for a violation of division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, it shall be a rebuttable presumption that a woman who is unmarried and under eighteen years of age is unemancipated.

(C)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section that the pregnant woman provided the person who performed or induced the abortion with false, misleading, or incorrect information about her age, marital status, or emancipation, about the age of a brother or sister to whom she requested notice be given as a specified relative instead of to one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian, or about the last known address of either of her parents, her guardian, her custodian, or a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent to whom she requested notice be given and the person who performed or induced the abortion did not otherwise have reasonable cause to believe the pregnant woman was under eighteen years of age, unmarried, or unemancipated, to believe that the age of a brother or sister to whom she requested notice be given as a specified relative instead of to one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian was not twenty-one years of age, or to believe that the last known address of either of her parents, her guardian, her custodian, or a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent to whom she requested notice be given was incorrect.

(2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that compliance with the requirements of this section was not possible because an immediate threat of serious risk to the life or physical health of the pregnant woman from the continuation of her pregnancy created an emergency necessitating the immediate performance or inducement of an abortion.

(D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful abortion. A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony of the fourth degree on each subsequent offense. A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on a first offense and a felony of the fifth degree on each subsequent offense.

(E) Whoever violates this section is liable to the pregnant woman and her parents, guardian, or custodian for civil compensatory and exemplary damages.

(F) As used in this section "unemancipated" means that a woman who is unmarried and under eighteen years of age has not entered the armed services of the United States, has not become employed and self-subsisting, or has not otherwise become independent from the care and control of her parent, guardian, or custodian.

Sec. 2953.25. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Collateral sanction" means a penalty, disability, or disadvantage that is related to employment or occupational licensing, however denominated, as a result of the individual's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense and that applies by operation of law in this state whether or not the penalty, disability, or disadvantage is included in the sentence or judgment imposed.

"Collateral sanction" does not include imprisonment, probation, parole, supervised release, forfeiture, restitution, fine, assessment, or costs of prosecution.

(2) "Decision-maker" includes, but is not limited to, the state acting through a department, agency, board, commission, or instrumentality established by the law of this state for the exercise of any function of government, a political subdivision, an educational institution, or a government contractor or subcontractor made subject to this section by contract, law, or ordinance.

(3) "Department-funded program" means a residential or nonresidential program that is not a term in a state correctional institution, that is funded in whole or part by the department of rehabilitation and correction, and that is imposed as a sanction for an offense, as part of a sanction that is imposed for an offense, or as a term or condition of any sanction that is imposed for an offense.

(4) "Designee" means the person designated by the deputy director of the division of parole and community services to perform the duties designated in division (B) of this section.

(5) "Division of parole and community services" means the division of parole and community services of the department of rehabilitation and correction.

(6) "Offense" means any felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state.

(7) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2969.21 of the Revised Code.

(8) "Discretionary civil impact," "licensing agency," and "mandatory civil impact" have the same meanings as in section 2961.21 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) An individual who is subject to one or more collateral sanctions as a result of being convicted of or pleading guilty to an offense and who either has served a term in a state correctional institution for any offense or has spent time in a department-funded program for any offense may file a petition with the designee of the deputy director of the division of parole and community services for a certificate of qualification for employment.

(2) An individual who is subject to one or more collateral sanctions as a result of being convicted of or pleading guilty to an offense and who is not in a category described in division (B)(1) of this section may file for a certificate of qualification for employment by doing either of the following:

(a) In the case of an individual who resides in this state, filing a petition with the court of common pleas of the county in which the person resides or with the designee of the deputy director of the division of parole and community services;

(b) In the case of an individual who resides outside of this state, filing a petition with the court of common pleas of any county in which any conviction or plea of guilty from which the individual seeks relief was entered or with the designee of the deputy director of the division of parole and community services.

(3) A petition under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall be made on a copy of the form prescribed by the division of parole and community services under division (J) of this section, shall contain all of the information described in division (F) of this section, and, except as provided in division (B)(6) of this section, shall be accompanied by an application fee of fifty dollars and may be accompanied by a local court fee of not more than fifty dollars.

(4)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(b) of this section, an individual may file a petition under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section at any time after the expiration of whichever of the following is applicable:

(i) If the offense that resulted in the collateral sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a felony, at any time after the expiration of one year from the date of release of the individual from any period of incarceration in a state or local correctional facility that was imposed for that offense and all periods of supervision imposed after release from the period of incarceration or, if the individual was not incarcerated for that offense, at any time after the expiration of one year from the date of the individual's final release from all other sanctions imposed for that offense.

(ii) If the offense that resulted in the collateral sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a misdemeanor, at any time after the expiration of six months from the date of release of the individual from any period of incarceration in a local correctional facility that was imposed for that offense and all periods of supervision imposed after release from the period of incarceration or, if the individual was not incarcerated for that offense, at any time after the expiration of six months from the date of the final release of the individual from all sanctions imposed for that offense including any period of supervision.

(b) The department of rehabilitation and correction may establish criteria by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that, if satisfied by an individual, would allow the individual to file a petition before the expiration of six months or one year from the date of final release, whichever is applicable under division (B)(4)(a) of this section.

(5)(a) A designee that receives a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment from an individual under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall review the petition to determine whether it is complete. If the petition is complete, the designee shall forward the petition, the application fee, and any other information the designee possesses that relates to the petition, to the court of common pleas of the county in which the individual resides if the individual submitting the petition resides in this state or, if the individual resides outside of this state, to the court of common pleas of the county in which the conviction or plea of guilty from which the individual seeks relief was entered.

(b) A court of common pleas that receives a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment from an individual under division (B)(2) of this section, or that is forwarded a petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section, shall attempt to determine all other courts in this state in which the individual was convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense other than the offense from which the individual is seeking relief. The court that receives or is forwarded the petition shall notify all other courts in this state that it determines under this division were courts in which the individual was convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense other than the offense from which the individual is seeking relief that the individual has filed the petition and that the court may send comments regarding the possible issuance of the certificate.

A court of common pleas that receives a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)(2) of this section shall notify the county's prosecuting attorney that the individual has filed the petition.

A court of common pleas that receives a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)(2) of this section, or that is forwarded a petition for qualification under division (B)(5)(a) of this section may direct the clerk of court to process and record all notices required in or under this section. Except as provided in division (B)(6) of this section, the court shall pay thirty dollars of the application fee into the state treasury and twenty dollars of the application fee into the county general revenue fund.

(6) Upon receiving a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment filed by an individual under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, a court of common pleas or the designee of the deputy director of the division of parole and community services who receives the petition may waive all or part of the application fee of fifty dollars described in division (B)(3) of this section, for an applicant who presents a poverty affidavit showing that the applicant is indigent. If an applicant pays an application fee, the first twenty dollars or two-fifths of the fee, whichever is greater, that is collected shall be paid into the county general revenue fund. If an applicant pays an application fee, the amount collected in excess of the amount to be paid into the county general revenue fund shall be paid into the state treasury.

(C)(1) Upon receiving a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment filed by an individual under division (B)(2) of this section or being forwarded a petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section, the court shall review the individual's petition, the individual's criminal history, except for information contained in any record that has been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, all filings submitted by the prosecutor or by the victim in accordance with rules adopted by the division of parole and community services, the applicant's military service record, if applicable, and whether the applicant has an emotional, mental, or physical condition that is traceable to the applicant's military service in the armed forces of the United States and that was a contributing factor in the commission of the offense or offenses, and all other relevant evidence. The court may order any report, investigation, or disclosure by the individual that the court believes is necessary for the court to reach a decision on whether to approve the individual's petition for a certificate of qualification for employment, except that the court shall not require an individual to disclose information about any record sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code.

(2) Upon receiving a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment filed by an individual under division (B)(2) of this section or being forwarded a petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section, except as otherwise provided in this division, the court shall decide whether to issue the certificate within sixty days after the court receives or is forwarded the completed petition and all information requested for the court to make that decision. Upon request of the individual who filed the petition, the court may extend the sixty-day period specified in this division.

(3) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section and subject to division (C)(7) of this section, a court that receives an individual's petition for a certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)(2) of this section or that is forwarded a petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section may issue a certificate of qualification for employment, at the court's discretion, if the court finds that the individual has established all of the following by a preponderance of the evidence:

(a) Granting the petition will materially assist the individual in obtaining employment or occupational licensing.

(b) The individual has a substantial need for the relief requested in order to live a law-abiding life.

(4) The submission of an incomplete petition by an individual shall not be grounds for the designee or court to deny the petition.

(5) Subject to division (C)(6) of this section, an individual is rebuttably presumed to be eligible for a certificate of qualification for employment if the court that receives the individual's petition under division (B)(2) of this section or that is forwarded a petition under division (B)(5)(a) of this section finds all of the following:

(a) The application was filed after the expiration of the applicable waiting period prescribed in division (B)(4) of this section;

(b) If the offense that resulted in the collateral sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a felony, at least three years have elapsed since the date of release of the individual from any period of incarceration in a state or local correctional facility that was imposed for that offense and all periods of supervision imposed after release from the period of incarceration or, if the individual was not incarcerated for that offense, at least three years have elapsed since the date of the individual's final release from all other sanctions imposed for that offense;

(c) If the offense that resulted in the collateral sanction from which the individual seeks relief is a misdemeanor, at least one year has elapsed since the date of release of the individual from any period of incarceration in a local correctional facility that was imposed for that offense and all periods of supervision imposed after release from the period of incarceration or, if the individual was not incarcerated for that offense, at least one year has elapsed since the date of the final release of the individual from all sanctions imposed for that offense including any period of supervision.

(6) An application that meets all of the requirements for the presumption under division (C)(5) of this section shall be denied only if the court that receives the petition finds that the evidence reviewed under division (C)(1) of this section rebuts the presumption of eligibility for issuance by establishing, by clear and convincing evidence, that the applicant has not been rehabilitated.

(7) A certificate of qualification for employment shall not create relief from any of the following collateral sanctions:

(a) Requirements imposed by Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under sections 2950.13 and 2950.132 of the Revised Code;

(b) A driver's license, commercial driver's license, or probationary license suspension, cancellation, or revocation pursuant to section 4510.037, 4510.07, 4511.19, or 4511.191 of the Revised Code if the relief sought is available pursuant to section 4510.021 or division (B) of section 4510.13 of the Revised Code;

(d) The denial, ineligibility, or automatic suspension of a license that is imposed upon an individual applying for or holding a license as a health care professional under Title XLVII of the Revised Code if the individual is convicted of, pleads guilty to, is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state under section 2951.041 of the Revised Code, or is subject to treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction for a violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.11, 2905.01, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2909.02, 2911.01, 2911.11, or 2919.123~~, or 2919.124~~ of the Revised Code;

(e) The immediate suspension of a license, certificate, or evidence of registration that is imposed upon an individual holding a license as a health care professional under Title XLVII of the Revised Code pursuant to division (C) of section 3719.121 of the Revised Code;

(f) The denial or ineligibility for employment in a pain clinic under division (B)(4) of section 4729.552 of the Revised Code;

(g) The mandatory suspension of a license that is imposed on an individual applying for or holding a license as a health care professional under Title XLVII of the Revised Code pursuant to section 3123.43 of the Revised Code.

(8) If a court that receives an individual's petition for a certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)(2) of this section or that is forwarded a petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section denies the petition, the court shall provide written notice to the individual of the court's denial. The court may place conditions on the individual regarding the individual's filing of any subsequent petition for a certificate of qualification for employment. The written notice must notify the individual of any conditions placed on the individual's filing of a subsequent petition for a certificate of qualification for employment.

If a court of common pleas that receives an individual's petition for a certificate of qualification for employment under division (B)(2) of this section or that is forwarded a petition for such a certificate under division (B)(5)(a) of this section denies the petition, the individual may appeal the decision to the court of appeals only if the individual alleges that the denial was an abuse of discretion on the part of the court of common pleas.

(D)(1) A certificate of qualification for employment issued to an individual lifts the automatic bar of a collateral sanction, and a decision-maker shall consider on a case-by-case basis whether to grant or deny the issuance or restoration of an occupational license or an employment opportunity, notwithstanding the individual's possession of the certificate, without, however, reconsidering or rejecting any finding made by a designee or court under division (C)(3) of this section.

(2) The certificate constitutes a rebuttable presumption that the person's criminal convictions are insufficient evidence that the person is unfit for the license, employment opportunity, or certification in question. Notwithstanding the presumption established under this division, the agency may deny the license or certification for the person if it determines that the person is unfit for issuance of the license.

(3) If an employer that has hired a person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for employment applies to a licensing agency for a license or certification and the person has a conviction or guilty plea that otherwise would bar the person's employment with the employer or licensure for the employer because of a mandatory civil impact, the agency shall give the person individualized consideration, notwithstanding the mandatory civil impact, the mandatory civil impact shall be considered for all purposes to be a discretionary civil impact, and the certificate constitutes a rebuttable presumption that the person's criminal convictions are insufficient evidence that the person is unfit for the employment, or that the employer is unfit for the license or certification, in question.

(E) A certificate of qualification for employment does not grant the individual to whom the certificate was issued relief from the mandatory civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) of section 2961.01 or division (B) of section 2961.02 of the Revised Code.

(F) A petition for a certificate of qualification for employment filed by an individual under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall include all of the following:

(1) The individual's name, date of birth, and social security number;

(2) All aliases of the individual and all social security numbers associated with those aliases;

(3) The individual's residence address, including the city, county, and state of residence and zip code;

(4) The length of time that the individual has resided in the individual's current state of residence, expressed in years and months of residence;

(5) A general statement as to why the individual has filed the petition and how the certificate of qualification for employment would assist the individual;

(6) A summary of the individual's criminal history, except for information contained in any record that has been sealed or expunged under section 2953.32 or 2953.39 of the Revised Code, with respect to each offense that is a disqualification from employment or licensing in an occupation or profession, including the years of each conviction or plea of guilty for each of those offenses;

(7) A summary of the individual's employment history, specifying the name of, and dates of employment with, each employer;

(8) Verifiable references and endorsements;

(9) The name of one or more immediate family members of the individual, or other persons with whom the individual has a close relationship, who support the individual's reentry plan;

(10) A summary of the reason the individual believes the certificate of qualification for employment should be granted;

(11) Any other information required by rule by the department of rehabilitation and correction.

(G)(1) In a judicial or administrative proceeding alleging negligence or other fault, a certificate of qualification for employment issued to an individual under this section may be introduced as evidence of a person's due care in hiring, retaining, licensing, leasing to, admitting to a school or program, or otherwise transacting business or engaging in activity with the individual to whom the certificate of qualification for employment was issued if the person knew of the certificate at the time of the alleged negligence or other fault.

(2) In any proceeding on a claim against an employer for negligent hiring, a certificate of qualification for employment issued to an individual under this section shall provide immunity for the employer as to the claim if the employer knew of the certificate at the time of the alleged negligence.

(3) If an employer hires an individual who has been issued a certificate of qualification for employment under this section, if the individual, after being hired, subsequently demonstrates dangerousness or is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony, and if the employer retains the individual as an employee after the demonstration of dangerousness or the conviction or guilty plea, the employer may be held liable in a civil action that is based on or relates to the retention of the individual as an employee only if it is proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the person having hiring and firing responsibility for the employer had actual knowledge that the employee was dangerous or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to the felony and was willful in retaining the individual as an employee after the demonstration of dangerousness or the conviction or guilty plea of which the person has actual knowledge.

(H) A certificate of qualification for employment issued under this section shall be revoked if the individual to whom the certificate of qualification for employment was issued is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony offense committed subsequent to the issuance of the certificate of qualification for employment. The department of rehabilitation and correction shall periodically review the certificates listed in the database described in division (K) of this section to identify those that are subject to revocation under this division. Upon identifying a certificate of qualification for employment that is subject to revocation, the department shall note in the database that the certificate has been revoked, the reason for revocation, and the effective date of revocation, which shall be the date of the conviction or plea of guilty subsequent to the issuance of the certificate.

(I) A designee's forwarding, or failure to forward, a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment to a court or a court's issuance, or failure to issue, a petition for a certificate of qualification for employment to an individual under division (B) of this section does not give rise to a claim for damages against the department of rehabilitation and correction or court.

(J) The division of parole and community services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the implementation and administration of this section and shall prescribe the form for the petition to be used under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section. The form for the petition shall include places for all of the information specified in division (F) of this section.

(K) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall maintain a database that identifies granted certificates and revoked certificates and tracks the number of certificates granted and revoked, the industries, occupations, and professions with respect to which the certificates have been most applicable, and the types of employers that have accepted the certificates. The department shall annually create a report that summarizes the information maintained in the database and shall make the report available to the public on its internet web site.

Sec. 3701.341. (A) The director of health, pursuant to Chapter 119. ~~and consistent with Chapter 3726. and section 2317.56~~ of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules relating to abortions and the following subjects:

(1) Post-abortion procedures to protect the health of the pregnant woman;

(2) Pathological reports;

(3) Humane disposition of the product of human conception;

(4) Counseling.

(B) The director of health shall implement the rules and shall apply to the court of common pleas for temporary or permanent injunctions restraining a violation or threatened violation of the rules. This action is an additional remedy not dependent on the adequacy of the remedy at law.

Sec. 3701.792. (A) The director of health shall develop a child survival form to be submitted to the department of health in accordance with division (B) of this section each time a child is born alive after an abortion or attempted abortion. In developing the form, the director may consult with obstetricians, maternal-fetal specialists, or any other professionals the director considers appropriate. The form shall include areas for all of the following to be provided:

(1) The patient number for the woman on whom the abortion was performed or attempted;

(2) The name, primary business address, and signature of the attending physician ~~described in section 3701.79 of the Revised Code~~ who performed or attempted to perform the abortion;

(3) The name and address of the facility in which the abortion was performed or attempted, and whether the facility is a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, physician's office, or other facility;

(4) The date the abortion was performed or attempted;

(5) The type of abortion procedure that was performed or attempted;

(6) The gestational age of the child who was born;

(7) Complications, by type, for both the woman and child;

(8) Any other information the director considers appropriate.

(B) The attending physician who performed or attempted an abortion in which a child was born alive after that event shall complete a child survival form developed under division (A) of this section. The physician shall submit the completed form to the department of health not later than fifteen days after the woman is discharged from the facility.

A completed child survival form is confidential and not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(C) A copy of the child survival form completed under this section shall be made part of the medical record maintained for the woman by the facility in which the abortion was performed or attempted.

(D) Each facility in which an abortion was performed or attempted and in which a child was born alive after that event shall submit monthly and annual reports to the department of health listing the total number of women on whom an abortion was performed or attempted at the facility and in which a child was born alive after that event, delineated by the type of abortion procedure that was performed or attempted. The annual report shall be submitted following the conclusion of the state's fiscal year. Each monthly or annual report shall be submitted not later than thirty days after the end of the applicable reporting period.

(E) Not later than the first day of October of each year, the department shall issue an annual report of the data submitted to the department for the previous calendar year as required by this section. At a minimum, the annual report shall specify the number of women on whom an abortion was performed or attempted and in which a child was born alive after that event, delineated by the type of abortion procedure that was performed or attempted and the facility in which the abortion was performed or attempted. The report shall not contain any information that would permit the identity of a woman on whom an abortion was performed or attempted or any child to be ascertained.

(F) No person shall purposely fail to comply with the child survival form submission requirement described in division (B) of this section or the copy maintenance requirement described in division (C) of this section.

(G) No person shall purposely fail to comply with the monthly or annual report submission requirements described in division (D) of this section.

(H) A woman on whom an abortion is performed or attempted may file a civil action against a person who violates division (F) or (G) or this section. A woman who prevails in an action filed under this division shall receive both of the following from the person who committed the violation:

(1) Damages in the amount of ten thousand dollars;

(2) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees.

(I) As used in this section:

(1) "Abortion" has the same meaning as in section 2919.11 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Ambulatory surgical facility" has the same meaning as in section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Hospital" means any building, structure, institution, or place devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis, treatment, and medical or surgical care for three or more unrelated individuals having illness, disease, injury, or deformity, and regularly making available at least clinical laboratory services, diagnostic x-ray services, treatment facilities for surgery or obstetrical care, or other definitive medical treatment. "Hospital" does not include a "home" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Physician's office" means an office or portion of an office that is used to provide medical or surgical services to the physician's patients. "Physician's office" does not mean an ambulatory surgical facility, a hospital, or a hospital emergency department.

Sec. 3702.30. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility in which surgical services are provided to patients who do not require hospitalization for inpatient care, the duration of services for any patient does not extend beyond twenty-four hours after the patient's admission, and to which any of the following apply:

(a) The surgical services are provided in a building that is separate from another building in which inpatient care is provided, regardless of whether the separate building is part of the same organization as the building in which inpatient care is provided.

(b) The surgical services are provided within a building in which inpatient care is provided and the entity that operates the portion of the building where the surgical services are provided is not the entity that operates the remainder of the building.

(c) The facility is held out to any person or government entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.

"Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital emergency department, hospital provider-based department that is otherwise licensed under Chapter 3722. of the Revised Code, or an office of a physician, podiatrist, or dentist.

(2) "Health care facility" means any of the following:

(a) An ambulatory surgical facility;

(b) A freestanding dialysis center;

(d) A freestanding birthing center;

(e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;

(f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.

(B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12 and 3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall establish quality standards for health care facilities. The standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other quality standards established by any entity recognized by the director.

In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the standards shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to maintain an infection control program. The purposes of the program are to minimize infections and communicable diseases and facilitate a functional and sanitary environment consistent with standards of professional practice. To achieve these purposes, ambulatory surgical facility staff managing the program shall create and administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and manage infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the program is directed by a qualified professional trained in infection control; ensure that the program is an integral part of the ambulatory surgical facility's quality assessment and performance improvement program; and implement in an expeditious manner corrective and preventive measures that result in improvement.

(C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that each physician who practices at the facility comply with all relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the obtaining of informed consent from a patient.

(D) The director shall issue a license to each health care facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates to the director that it meets the quality standards established by the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and satisfies the informed consent compliance requirements specified in division (C) of this section.

(E)(1) Except as provided in division ~~(H)~~(G) of this section and in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health care facility shall operate without a license issued under this section.

The general assembly does not intend for the provisions of this section or section 3702.301 of the Revised Code that establish health care facility licensing requirements or exemptions to have an effect on any third-party payments that may be available for the services provided by either a licensed health care facility or an entity exempt from licensure.

(2) If the department of health finds that a physician who practices at a health care facility is not complying with any provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of informed consent from a patient, the department shall report its finding to the state medical board, the physician, and the health care facility.

(3) Division (E)(2) of this section does not create, and shall not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right against a health care facility and in favor of a patient who allegedly sustains harm as a result of the failure of the patient's physician to obtain informed consent from the patient prior to performing a procedure on or otherwise caring for the patient in the health care facility.

(F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section shall include all of the following:

(1) Provisions governing application for, renewal, suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;

(2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section 3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided by a health care facility;

(3) Provisions governing the imposition under section 3702.32 of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of this section or the rules adopted under this section, including a scale for determining the amount of the penalties;

(4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use when conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.

(G) ~~An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or induces abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the Revised Code.~~

~~(H)~~ The following entities are not required to obtain a license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under this section:

(1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;

(2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital accreditation or certification program and that provides diagnostic imaging;

(3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides diagnostic imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of a surgical procedure.

Sec. 3732.01. As used in sections 3732.01 to 3732.06 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Collect" means for a regulated entity to obtain personal reproductive or sexual health information in any manner.

(B) "Commerce" has the same meaning as in the "Federal Trade Commission Act," 15 U.S.C. 44.

(C) "Disclose" means for a regulated entity to release, transfer, sell, provide access to, license, or divulge personal reproductive or sexual health information in any manner to a third party, including the federal government, the state, any political subdivision, or a law enforcement agency.

(D)(1) "Express consent" means informed, opt-in, voluntary, specific, and unambiguous written consent, including by electronic means, to collecting, retaining, using, or disclosing personal reproductive or sexual health information.

(2) "Express consent" does not include any of the following:

(a) Consent secured without first providing to the individual a clear and conspicuous disclosure, apart from any privacy policy, terms of service, terms of use, general release, user agreement, or other similar document, of all information material to the provision of consent;

(b) Hovering over, muting, pausing, or closing a given piece of content;

(c) Agreement obtained through the use of a user interface designed or manipulated with the substantial effect of subverting or impairing user autonomy, decision-making, or choice.

(E) "Personal information" means information that identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly to, a particular individual.

(F) "Personal reproductive or sexual health information" means personal information relating to the past, present, or future reproductive or sexual health of an individual, including any of the following:

(1) Efforts to research or obtain reproductive or sexual information, services, or supplies, including location information that might indicate an attempt to acquire or receive such information, services, or supplies;

(2) Reproductive or sexual health conditions, status, diseases, or diagnoses, including pregnancy, menstruation, ovulation, and the ability to conceive a pregnancy, regardless of whether such individual is sexually active, and whether such individual is engaging in unprotected sex;

(3) Reproductive and sexual health-related surgeries or procedures, including the termination of a pregnancy;

(4) Use or purchase of contraceptives, birth control, or any medication related to reproductive health, including abortifacients;

(5) Bodily functions, vital signs, measurements, or symptoms related to menstruation or pregnancy, such as basal temperature, cramps, bodily discharge, or hormone levels;

(6) Any information about diagnoses or diagnostic testing, treatment, medications, or the use of any product or service relating to the matters described in divisions (F)(1) to (5) of this section;

(7) Any information described in divisions (F)(1) to (6) of this section that is derived or extrapolated from non-health information, including proxy, derivative, inferred, emergent, or algorithmic data.

(G)(1) "Regulated entity" means any entity, to the extent the entity is engaged in activities in or affecting commerce, that is either:

(a) A person, partnership, or corporation subject to the jurisdiction of the federal trade commission under section 5(a)(2) of the "Federal Trade Commission Act," 15 U.S.C. 45(a)(2);

(b) Notwithstanding section 4, 5(a)(2), or 6 of the "Federal Trade Commission Act," 15 U.S.C. 44; 45(a)(2); 46, or any jurisdictional limitation of the commission, either of the following:

(i) A common carrier subject to the "Communications Act of 1934,"47 U.S.C. 151 et seq.;

(ii) An organization not organized to carry on business for its own profit or that of its members.

(2) "Regulated entity" does not include any of the following:

(a) An entity that is a covered entity, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, to the extent the entity is acting as a covered entity under the HIPAA privacy regulations, as defined in section 1180(b)(3) of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1320d–9(b)(3);

(b) An entity that is a business associate, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, to the extent the entity is acting as a business associate under the HIPAA privacy regulations, as defined in section 1180(b)(3) of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1320d–9(b)(3);

(c) An entity that is subject to restrictions on disclosure of records under section 543 of the "Public Health Service Act," 42 U.S.C. 290dd–2, to the extent the entity is acting in a capacity subject to the restrictions.

(H)(1) "Service provider" means a person to whom both of the following apply:

(a) Collects, retains, uses, or discloses personal reproductive or sexual health information for the sole purpose of, and only to the extent that the person is, conducting business activities on behalf of, for the benefit of, under instruction of, and under contractual agreement with a regulated entity and not any other individual or entity;

(b) Does not divulge personal reproductive or sexual health information to any individual or entity other than such regulated entity or a contractor to such service provider bound to information processing terms not less restrictive than terms to which the service provider is bound.

(2) A person shall only be considered a service provider in the course of activities described in division (H)(1)(a) of this section.

(I) "Third party" means any person who is not any of the following:

(1) The regulated entity that is disclosing or collecting personal reproductive or sexual health information;

(2) The individual to whom the personal reproductive or sexual health information relates;

(3) A service provider.

Sec. 3732.02. (A) A regulated entity shall not collect, retain, use, or disclose personal reproductive or sexual health information, except under either of the following circumstances:

(1) With the express consent of the individual to whom such information relates;

(2) As is strictly necessary to provide a product or service that the individual to whom the information relates has requested from the regulated entity.

(B) A regulated entity shall restrict access to personal reproductive or sexual health information to the employees or service providers of the regulated entity for which access is necessary to provide a product or service that the individual to whom the information relates has requested from the regulated entity.

(C) For purposes of compliance with this section by a service provider of a regulated entity, a request from an individual to the regulated entity for a product or service, and an express consent from the individual to the regulated entity, shall be treated as having also been provided to the service provider.

Sec. 3732.03. (A)(1) A regulated entity shall make available a reasonable mechanism by which an individual, upon a verified request, may access both of the following:

(a) Any personal reproductive or sexual health information relating to the individual that is retained by the regulated entity, including both of the following:

(i) In the case of the information that the regulated entity collected from third parties, how and from which specific third parties the regulated entity collected the information;

(ii) The information that the regulated entity inferred about the individual.

(b) A list of the specific third parties to which the regulated entity has disclosed any personal reproductive or sexual health information relating to such individual.

(2) A regulated entity shall make the information described in division (A)(1) of this section available in both a human-readable format and a structured, interoperable, and machine-readable format.

(B)(1) A regulated entity shall make available a reasonable mechanism by which an individual, upon a verified request, may request the deletion of any personal reproductive or sexual health information relating to the individual that is retained by the regulated entity, including any information that the regulated entity collected from a third party or inferred from other information retained by the regulated entity.

(2) A regulated entity shall comply with a verified request received under this section without undue delay but not later than fifteen days after the date on which such regulated entity receives the verified request.

(3) A regulated entity shall not charge a fee to an individual for a request made under this section.

(1) Take an action that would convert information that is not personal information into personal information;

(2) Collect or retain personal information that the regulated entity would otherwise not collect or retain;

(3) Retain personal information longer than the regulated entity would otherwise retain the information.

(D) For purposes of this section, "reasonable mechanism" means, with respect to a regulated entity and a right under division (B) of this section, a mechanism to which both of the following apply:

(1) It is equivalent in availability and ease of use to that of other mechanisms for communicating or interacting with the regulated entity.

(2) It includes an online means of exercising the right described under division (B) of this section.

Sec. 3732.04. (A) A regulated entity shall maintain a privacy policy relating to the practices of the regulated entity regarding the collecting, retaining, using, and disclosing of personal reproductive or sexual health information.

(B) If a regulated entity has a web site, it shall prominently publish the privacy policy on the web site.

(1) A description of the practices of the regulated entity regarding the collecting, retaining, using, and disclosing of personal reproductive or sexual health information;

(2) A clear and concise statement of the categories of the information collected, retained, used, or disclosed by the regulated entity;

(3) A clear and concise statement of the purposes of the regulated entity for the collecting, retaining, using, or disclosing of the information;

(4) A list of the specific third parties to which the regulated entity discloses the information, and a clear and concise statement of the purposes for which the regulated entity discloses the information, including how the information may be used by each such third party;

(5) A list of the specific third parties from which the regulated entity has collected the information, and a clear and concise statement of the purposes for which the regulated entity collects the information;

(6) A clear and concise statement describing the extent to which individuals may exercise control over the collecting, retaining, using, and disclosing of personal reproductive or sexual health information by the regulated entity, and the steps an individual must take to implement such controls;

(7) A clear and concise statement describing the efforts of the regulated entity to protect personal reproductive or sexual health information from unauthorized disclosure.

Sec. 3732.05. (A) Any individual alleging a violation of sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code may bring a civil action in any court of competent jurisdiction.

(B) In a civil action brought under this section in which the plaintiff prevails, the court may award the following:

(1) An amount not less than one hundred dollars and not greater than one thousand dollars per violation per day, or actual damages, whichever is greater;

(2) Punitive damages;

(3) Reasonable attorneys' fees and litigation costs;

(4) Any other relief, including equitable or declaratory relief, that the court determines appropriate.

(C) A violation of sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code constitutes a concrete and particularized injury in fact to the individual to whom such information relates.

(D)(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no pre-dispute arbitration agreement or pre-dispute joint-action waiver is valid or enforceable with respect to a dispute arising under sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code.

(2) Any determination as to whether or how division (D) of this section applies to any dispute shall be made by a court, rather than an arbitrator, without regard to whether the agreement purports to delegate the determination to an arbitrator.

(E) For purposes of this section:

(1) "Pre-dispute arbitration agreement" means any agreement to arbitrate a dispute that has not arisen at the time of the making of the agreement.

(2) "Pre-dispute joint-action waiver" means an agreement that would prohibit a party from participating in a joint, class, or collective action in a judicial, arbitral, administrative, or other forum, concerning a dispute that has not yet arisen at the time of the making of the agreement.

Sec. 3732.06. (A) A violation of sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code is an unfair or deceptive act or practice in violation of section 1345.02 of the Revised Code. A person injured by a violation of those sections has a cause of action and is entitled to the same relief available to a consumer under section 1345.09 of the Revised Code.

(B) The attorney general shall enforce sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code in the same manner, by the same means, and with the same jurisdiction, powers, and duties as applicable for violations of sections 1345.01 to 1345.13 of the Revised Code. Any regulated entity that violates those sections is subject to the provisions, including penalties, of Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code.

(C) The attorney general may adopt rules as necessary to implement and enforce sections 3732.02 to 3732.04 of the Revised Code. Any rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3732.07. As used in sections 3732.07 to 3732.09 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Abusive litigant" means a person who voluntarily initiates or intervenes in abusive litigation.

(B) "Abusive litigation" means litigation or other legal action, whether civil or criminal in nature, that is intended to deter, prevent, sanction or punish any person providing or obtaining reproductive health care, or assisting another to receive or provide reproductive health care by either of the following:

(1) Filing or prosecuting any action where liability, in whole or in part, is based on reproductive health care that occurred in Ohio, was provided in Ohio, or was intended to be obtained or provided in Ohio, including any action in which liability is based on any theory of vicarious, joint, or several liability derived therefrom;

(2) Attempting to enforce any order or judgment issued in connection with any action described in division (B)(1) of this section against an Ohio protected party.

(C) "Contraception" means any medication, device, procedure, or practice designed or employed to prevent pregnancy, the use of which is lawful in Ohio.

(D) "Protected party" means a reproductive health care provider, a reproductive health care helper, or an individual accessing or seeking to access reproductive health care in Ohio.

(E) "Reproductive health care" means all medical, surgical, counseling, or referral services that are lawful in Ohio or the receipt of products relating to the human reproductive system that is lawful in Ohio, including services or products relating to the use or intended use of a particular medicine or device, medical service or procedure, practice, or similar intervention, that are related to the human reproductive system, including fertility-related medical procedures or medicines; sexually transmitted disease prevention, testing, or treatment; gender affirming care; and family planning services and counseling, such as those related to birth control medication or supplies, other contraception methods, sterilization procedures, pregnancy testing, or the intended or actual initiation or termination of a pregnancy.

(F) "Reproductive health care helper" means a person who facilitates or otherwise has supported or is supporting an individual in seeking or receiving reproductive health care in Ohio, including a person who provides funding, lodging, transportation, doula services, information, data sharing services such as electronic medical records programs, or other financial or practical support to an individual seeking or receiving reproductive health care.

(G) "Take part in abusive litigation" means to voluntarily engage in abusive litigation without legal compulsion in a manner that is intended to deter, prevent, sanction, or punish a protected party for such party's connection to reproductive health care in Ohio.

(H) "Wrongful action" means the procurement, initiation, or continuation of abusive litigation that causes harm to a protected party where any of the following apply:

(1) An Ohio court definitively concludes that the abusive litigation is plainly baseless as a matter of law.

(2) The abusive litigation at issue was voluntarily withdrawn or dismissed and there was no objective basis to conclude the abusive litigation would result in an enforceable judgment against the protected party.

(3) The abusive litigation was dismissed by a court and there was no objective basis to conclude the abusive litigation would result in an enforceable judgment against the protected party.

(4) An abusive litigant has obtained a judgment in a foreign state through abusive litigation and sought to enforce such judgment in Ohio but enforcement has been refused because the judgment is penal in nature or proscribes future conduct, the original court lacked jurisdiction, or the court has otherwise recognized an exception to recognition of such judgment, and there was no objective basis to conclude the judgment would be enforceable against the protected party in Ohio.

(5) An abusive litigant has collected on a judgment obtained through abusive litigation predicated, in whole or in material part, on conduct that occurred in Ohio and to which all of the following apply:

(a) The conduct was lawful in Ohio at the time it took place.

(b) There is no comparable cause of action or liability under Ohio law.

(c) There is no law or legal principle that prevents the recoupment of damages for the harm caused to the protected party aggrieved by such abusive litigation.

Sec. 3732.08. (A) No person shall take part in abusive litigation against any Ohio reproductive health care patient, that such person knows or should know will constitute a wrongful action where liability, in whole or in part, is based on an individual seeking or receiving reproductive health care in Ohio that is lawful in Ohio.

(B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, no person shall take part in abusive litigation against a reproductive health care provider or reproductive health care helper that such person knows or should know will constitute a wrongful action where liability, in whole or in part, is related to either of the following:

(a) The alleged provision of, the alleged seeking of, or an individual allegedly receiving reproductive health care in Ohio;

(b) The alleged aiding or assisting in the provision, seeking, or receipt of reproductive health care in Ohio that is lawful in Ohio.

(2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to either of the following:

(a) A tort, contract, or statute-based litigation, if a similar claim would exist under Ohio law if brought by the individual who received the reproductive health care service on which the original lawsuit was based, or if brought by the individual's authorized legal representative, for damages suffered from harm to the individual or another's loss of consortium with the individual;

(b) A breach of contract litigation, if a similar claim would exist under Ohio law if brought or sought to be enforced by a party with a contractual relationship with the person that is the subject of the action in another state.

(C) Any person aggrieved by a wrongful action in violation of this section may bring a civil action in a court of competent jurisdiction against an abusive litigant and may recover, for each violation, the following:

(1) Actual damages created by the wrongful action, including money damages in the amount of any judgment awarded in such wrongful action, and reasonable attorney's fees and costs incurred to defend against such wrongful action, whether or not a judgment was awarded;

(2) Reasonable attorneys' fees and costs incurred to bring an action under this section;

(3) Any other legal or equitable relief as the court may determine appropriate to remedy the violation.

Sec. 3732.09. (A) Nothing in sections 3732.01 to 3732.09 of the Revised Code shall be construed to do the following:

(1) Apply to a lawsuit brought in another jurisdiction where no part of the acts that formed the basis for liability occurred in Ohio or application of sections 3732.01 to 3732.09 of the Revised Code would result in the extraterritorial application of those sections in a manner that is not incidental;

(2) Limit the rights of an aggrieved person to recover damages or seek legal protection under any other applicable law or legal theory.

(B) The provisions of sections 3732.01 to 3732.09 of the Revised Code shall be interpreted consistently with the United States Constitution and other applicable law and shall not unlawfully prohibit constitutionally protected activity.

Sec. 3732.11. (A) No health care provider or health care facility shall be required or compelled to provide patient records to any out-of-state third party, including the federal government, another state, any political subdivision, or a law enforcement agency.

(B) For purposes of this section:

(1) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 2925.11 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Health care provider" has the same meaning as in section 2305.2311 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4112.01. (A) As used in this chapter:

(1) "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, associations, organizations, corporations, legal representatives, trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, and other organized groups of persons. "Person" also includes, but is not limited to, any owner, lessor, assignor, builder, manager, broker, salesperson, appraiser, agent, employee, lending institution, and the state and all political subdivisions, authorities, agencies, boards, and commissions of the state.

(2) "Employer" means the state, any political subdivision of the state, or a person employing four or more persons within the state, and any agent of the state, political subdivision, or person.

(3) "Employee" means an individual employed by any employer but does not include any individual employed in the domestic service of any person.

(4) "Labor organization" includes any organization that exists, in whole or in part, for the purpose of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or other mutual aid or protection in relation to employment.

(5) "Employment agency" includes any person regularly undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure opportunities to work or to procure, recruit, refer, or place employees.

(6) "Commission" means the Ohio civil rights commission created by section 4112.03 of the Revised Code.

(7) "Discriminate" includes segregate or separate.

(8) "Unlawful discriminatory practice" means any act prohibited by section 4112.02, 4112.021, or 4112.022 of the Revised Code.

(9) "Place of public accommodation" means any inn, restaurant, eating house, barbershop, public conveyance by air, land, or water, theater, store, other place for the sale of merchandise, or any other place of public accommodation or amusement of which the accommodations, advantages, facilities, or privileges are available to the public.

(10) "Housing accommodations" includes any building or structure, or portion of a building or structure, that is used or occupied or is intended, arranged, or designed to be used or occupied as the home residence, dwelling, dwelling unit, or sleeping place of one or more individuals, groups, or families whether or not living independently of each other; and any vacant land offered for sale or lease. "Housing accommodations" also includes any housing accommodations held or offered for sale or rent by a real estate broker, salesperson, or agent, by any other person pursuant to authorization of the owner, by the owner, or by the owner's legal representative.

(11) "Restrictive covenant" means any specification limiting the transfer, rental, lease, or other use of any housing accommodations because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, disability, or ancestry, or any limitation based upon affiliation with or approval by any person, directly or indirectly, employing race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, disability, or ancestry as a condition of affiliation or approval.

(12) "Burial lot" means any lot for the burial of deceased persons within any public burial ground or cemetery, including, but not limited to, cemeteries owned and operated by municipal corporations, townships, or companies or associations incorporated for cemetery purposes.

(13) "Disability" means a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, including the functions of caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working; a record of a physical or mental impairment; or being regarded as having a physical or mental impairment.

(14) Except as otherwise provided in section 4112.021 of the Revised Code, "age" means an individual aged forty years or older.

(15) "Familial status" means either of the following:

(a) One or more individuals who are under eighteen years of age and who are domiciled with a parent or guardian having legal custody of the individual or domiciled, with the written permission of the parent or guardian having legal custody, with a designee of the parent or guardian;

(b) Any person who is pregnant or in the process of securing legal custody of any individual who is under eighteen years of age.

(16)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(16)(b) of this section, "physical or mental impairment" includes any of the following:

(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genito-urinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine;

(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, including, but not limited to, intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities;

(iii) Diseases and conditions, including, but not limited to, orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, autism, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, human immunodeficiency virus infection, intellectual disability, emotional illness, drug addiction, and alcoholism.

(b) "Physical or mental impairment" does not include any of the following:

(i) Homosexuality and bisexuality;

(ii) Transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia, exhibitionism, voyeurism, gender identity disorders not resulting from physical impairments, or other sexual behavior disorders;

(iii) Compulsive gambling, kleptomania, or pyromania;

(iv) Psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current illegal use of a controlled substance or the current use of alcoholic beverages.

(17) "Dwelling unit" means a single unit of residence for a family of one or more persons.

(18) "Common use areas" means rooms, spaces, or elements inside or outside a building that are made available for the use of residents of the building or their guests, and includes, but is not limited to, hallways, lounges, lobbies, laundry rooms, refuse rooms, mail rooms, recreational areas, and passageways among and between buildings.

(19) "Public use areas" means interior or exterior rooms or spaces of a privately or publicly owned building that are made available to the general public.

(20) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.

(21) "Disabled tenant" means a tenant or prospective tenant who is a person with a disability.

(22) "Military status" means a person's status in "service in the uniformed services" as defined in section 5923.05 of the Revised Code.

(23) "Aggrieved person" includes both of the following:

(a) Any person who claims to have been injured by any unlawful discriminatory practice described in division (H) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code;

(b) Any person who believes that the person will be injured by any unlawful discriminatory practice described in division (H) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code that is about to occur.

(24) "Unlawful discriminatory practice relating to employment" means both of the following:

(a) An unlawful discriminatory practice that is prohibited by division (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code;

(b) An unlawful discriminatory practice that is prohibited by division (I) or (J) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code that is related to employment.

(25) "Notice of right to sue" means a notice sent by the commission to a person who files a charge under section 4112.051 of the Revised Code that states that the person who filed the charge may bring a civil action related to the charge pursuant to section 4112.052 or 4112.14 of the Revised Code, in accordance with section 4112.052 of the Revised Code.

(B) For the purposes of divisions (A) to (F) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code, the terms "because of sex" and "on the basis of sex" include, but are not limited to, because of or on the basis of pregnancy, any illness arising out of and occurring during the course of a pregnancy, childbirth, abortion, miscarriage, family planning, or related medical conditions. Women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, abortion, miscarriage, family planning, or related medical conditions shall be treated the same for all employment-related purposes, including receipt of benefits under fringe benefit programs, as other persons not so affected but similar in their ability or inability to work, and nothing in division (B) of section 4111.17 of the Revised Code shall be interpreted to permit otherwise. This division shall not be construed to require an employer to pay for health insurance benefits for abortion, except where the life of the mother would be endangered if the fetus were carried to term or except where medical complications have arisen from the abortion, provided that nothing in this division precludes an employer from providing abortion benefits or otherwise affects bargaining agreements in regard to abortion.

Sec. 4112.02. It shall be an unlawful discriminatory practice:

(A) For any employer~~, because of the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of any person,~~ to discharge without just cause, to refuse to hire, or otherwise to discriminate against ~~that~~ any person with respect to hire, tenure, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, or any matter directly or indirectly related to employment because of any of the following:

(1) The race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of the person;

(2) Any reproductive health decision made by the person, including a decision to use a particular drug, device, or medical service, including abortion and services related to a miscarriage or family planning.

(B) For an employment agency or personnel placement service, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, to do any of the following:

(1) Refuse or fail to accept, register, classify properly, or refer for employment, or otherwise discriminate against any person;

(2) Comply with a request from an employer for referral of applicants for employment if the request directly or indirectly indicates that the employer fails to comply with the provisions of sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.

(1) Limit or classify its membership on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;

(2) Discriminate against, limit the employment opportunities of, or otherwise adversely affect the employment status, wages, hours, or employment conditions of any person as an employee because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry.

(D) For any employer, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee controlling apprentice training programs to discriminate against any person because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, or ancestry in admission to, or employment in, any program established to provide apprentice training.

(E) Except where based on a bona fide occupational qualification certified in advance by the commission, for any employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, or labor organization, prior to employment or admission to membership, to do any of the following:

(1) Elicit or attempt to elicit any information concerning the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of an applicant for employment or membership;

(2) Make or keep a record of the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of any applicant for employment or membership;

(3) Use any form of application for employment, or personnel or membership blank, seeking to elicit information regarding race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry; but an employer holding a contract containing a nondiscrimination clause with the government of the United States, or any department or agency of that government, may require an employee or applicant for employment to furnish documentary proof of United States citizenship and may retain that proof in the employer's personnel records and may use photographic or fingerprint identification for security purposes;

(4) Print or publish or cause to be printed or published any notice or advertisement relating to employment or membership indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination, based upon race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;

(5) Announce or follow a policy of denying or limiting, through a quota system or otherwise, employment or membership opportunities of any group because of the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of that group;

(6) Utilize in the recruitment or hiring of persons any employment agency, personnel placement service, training school or center, labor organization, or any other employee-referring source known to discriminate against persons because of their race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry.

(F) For any person seeking employment to publish or cause to be published any advertisement that specifies or in any manner indicates that person's race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, or expresses a limitation or preference as to the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of any prospective employer.

(G) For any proprietor or any employee, keeper, or manager of a place of public accommodation to deny to any person, except for reasons applicable alike to all persons regardless of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, the full enjoyment of the accommodations, advantages, facilities, or privileges of the place of public accommodation.

(H) Subject to section 4112.024 of the Revised Code, for any person to do any of the following:

(1) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, or finance housing accommodations, refuse to negotiate for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, or otherwise deny or make unavailable housing accommodations because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;

(2) Represent to any person that housing accommodations are not available for inspection, sale, or rental, when in fact they are available, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;

(3) Discriminate against any person in the making or purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial assistance for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, or any person in the making or purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial assistance that is secured by residential real estate, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing accommodations are located, provided that the person, whether an individual, corporation, or association of any type, lends money as one of the principal aspects or incident to the person's principal business and not only as a part of the purchase price of an owner-occupied residence the person is selling nor merely casually or occasionally to a relative or friend;

(4) Discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of selling, transferring, assigning, renting, leasing, or subleasing any housing accommodations or in furnishing facilities, services, or privileges in connection with the ownership, occupancy, or use of any housing accommodations, including the sale of fire, extended coverage, or homeowners insurance, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing accommodations are located;

(5) Discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of any loan of money, whether or not secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing accommodations are located;

(6) Refuse to consider without prejudice the combined income of both husband and wife for the purpose of extending mortgage credit to a married couple or either member of a married couple;

(7) Print, publish, or circulate any statement or advertisement, or make or cause to be made any statement or advertisement, relating to the sale, transfer, assignment, rental, lease, sublease, or acquisition of any housing accommodations, or relating to the loan of money, whether or not secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, that indicates any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based upon race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin, or an intention to make any such preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination;

(8) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(8) or (17) of this section, make any inquiry, elicit any information, make or keep any record, or use any form of application containing questions or entries concerning race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin in connection with the sale or lease of any housing accommodations or the loan of any money, whether or not secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations. Any person may make inquiries, and make and keep records, concerning race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin for the purpose of monitoring compliance with this chapter.

(9) Include in any transfer, rental, or lease of housing accommodations any restrictive covenant, or honor or exercise, or attempt to honor or exercise, any restrictive covenant;

(10) Induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by representing that a change has occurred or may occur with respect to the racial, religious, sexual, military status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block, neighborhood, or other area in which the housing accommodations are located, or induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by representing that the presence or anticipated presence of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin, in the block, neighborhood, or other area will or may have results including, but not limited to, the following:

(a) The lowering of property values;

(b) A change in the racial, religious, sexual, military status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block, neighborhood, or other area;

(d) A decline in the quality of the schools serving the block, neighborhood, or other area.

(11) Deny any person access to or membership or participation in any multiple-listing service, real estate brokers' organization, or other service, organization, or facility relating to the business of selling or renting housing accommodations, or discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of that access, membership, or participation, on account of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, disability, or ancestry;

(12) Coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of that person's having exercised or enjoyed or having aided or encouraged any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right granted or protected by division (H) of this section;

(13) Discourage or attempt to discourage the purchase by a prospective purchaser of housing accommodations, by representing that any block, neighborhood, or other area has undergone or might undergo a change with respect to its religious, racial, sexual, military status, familial status, or ethnic composition;

(14) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, or finance, or otherwise deny or withhold, a burial lot from any person because of the race, color, sex, military status, familial status, age, ancestry, disability, or national origin of any prospective owner or user of the lot;

(15) Discriminate in the sale or rental of, or otherwise make unavailable or deny, housing accommodations to any buyer or renter because of a disability of any of the following:

(a) The buyer or renter;

(b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made available;

(16) Discriminate in the terms, conditions, or privileges of the sale or rental of housing accommodations to any person or in the provision of services or facilities to any person in connection with the housing accommodations because of a disability of any of the following:

(a) That person;

(b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made available;

(17) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(17) of this section, make an inquiry to determine whether an applicant for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, a person residing in or intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made available, or any individual associated with that person has a disability, or make an inquiry to determine the nature or severity of a disability of the applicant or such a person or individual. The following inquiries may be made of all applicants for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, regardless of whether they have disabilities:

(a) An inquiry into an applicant's ability to meet the requirements of ownership or tenancy;

(b) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified for housing accommodations available only to persons with disabilities or persons with a particular type of disability;

(c) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified for a priority available to persons with disabilities or persons with a particular type of disability;

(d) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant currently uses a controlled substance in violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code or a substantively comparable municipal ordinance;

(e) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant at any time has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense, an element of which is the illegal sale, offer to sell, cultivation, manufacture, other production, shipment, transportation, delivery, or other distribution of a controlled substance.

(18)(a) Refuse to permit, at the expense of a person with a disability, reasonable modifications of existing housing accommodations that are occupied or to be occupied by the person with a disability, if the modifications may be necessary to afford the person with a disability full enjoyment of the housing accommodations. This division does not preclude a landlord of housing accommodations that are rented or to be rented to a tenant with a disability from conditioning permission for a proposed modification upon the tenant with a disability doing one or more of the following:

(i) Providing a reasonable description of the proposed modification and reasonable assurances that the proposed modification will be made in a workerlike manner and that any required building permits will be obtained prior to the commencement of the proposed modification;

(ii) Agreeing to restore at the end of the tenancy the interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if it is reasonable for the landlord to condition permission for the proposed modification upon the agreement;

(iii) Paying into an interest-bearing escrow account that is in the landlord's name, over a reasonable period of time, a reasonable amount of money not to exceed the projected costs at the end of the tenancy of the restoration of the interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if the landlord finds the account reasonably necessary to ensure the availability of funds for the restoration work. The interest earned in connection with an escrow account described in this division shall accrue to the benefit of the tenant with a disability who makes payments into the account.

(b) A landlord shall not condition permission for a proposed modification upon a tenant with a disability's payment of a security deposit that exceeds the customarily required security deposit of all tenants of the particular housing accommodations.

(19) Refuse to make reasonable accommodations in rules, policies, practices, or services when necessary to afford a person with a disability equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling unit, including associated public and common use areas;

(20) Fail to comply with the standards and rules adopted under division (A) of section 3781.111 of the Revised Code;

(21) Discriminate against any person in the selling, brokering, or appraising of real property because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;

(22) Fail to design and construct covered multifamily dwellings for first occupancy on or after June 30, 1992, in accordance with the following conditions:

(a) The dwellings shall have at least one building entrance on an accessible route, unless it is impractical to do so because of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the site.

(b) With respect to dwellings that have a building entrance on an accessible route, all of the following apply:

(i) The public use areas and common use areas of the dwellings shall be readily accessible to and usable by persons with a disability.

(ii) All the doors designed to allow passage into and within all premises shall be sufficiently wide to allow passage by persons with a disability who are in wheelchairs.

(iii) All premises within covered multifamily dwelling units shall contain an accessible route into and through the dwelling; all light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats, and other environmental controls within such units shall be in accessible locations; the bathroom walls within such units shall contain reinforcements to allow later installation of grab bars; and the kitchens and bathrooms within such units shall be designed and constructed in a manner that enables an individual in a wheelchair to maneuver about such rooms.

For purposes of division (H)(22) of this section, "covered multifamily dwellings" means buildings consisting of four or more units if such buildings have one or more elevators and ground floor units in other buildings consisting of four or more units.

(I) For any person to discriminate in any manner against any other person because that person has opposed any unlawful discriminatory practice defined in this section or because that person has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing under sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.

(J) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce the doing of any act declared by this section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice, to obstruct or prevent any person from complying with this chapter or any order issued under it, or to attempt directly or indirectly to commit any act declared by this section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice.

(K) Nothing in divisions (A) to (E) of this section shall be construed to require a person with a disability to be employed or trained under circumstances that would significantly increase the occupational hazards affecting either the person with a disability, other employees, the general public, or the facilities in which the work is to be performed, or to require the employment or training of a person with a disability in a job that requires the person with a disability routinely to undertake any task, the performance of which is substantially and inherently impaired by the person's disability.

(L) With regard to age, it shall not be an unlawful discriminatory practice and it shall not constitute a violation of division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code for any employer, employment agency, joint labor-management committee controlling apprenticeship training programs, or labor organization to do any of the following:

(1) Establish bona fide employment qualifications reasonably related to the particular business or occupation that may include standards for skill, aptitude, physical capability, intelligence, education, maturation, and experience;

(2) Observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or any bona fide employee benefit plan, including, but not limited to, a retirement, pension, or insurance plan, that is not a subterfuge to evade the purposes of this section. However, no such employee benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual, and no such seniority system or employee benefit plan shall require or permit the involuntary retirement of any individual, because of the individual's age except as provided for in the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended.

(3) Retire an employee who has attained sixty-five years of age who, for the two-year period immediately before retirement, is employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, if the employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or deferred compensation plan, or any combination of those plans, of the employer of the employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at least forty-four thousand dollars, in accordance with the conditions of the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended;

(4) Observe the terms of any bona fide apprenticeship program if the program is registered with the Ohio apprenticeship council pursuant to sections 4139.01 to 4139.06 of the Revised Code and is approved by the federal committee on apprenticeship of the United States department of labor.

(M) Nothing in this chapter prohibiting age discrimination and nothing in division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code shall be construed to prohibit the following:

(1) The designation of uniform age the attainment of which is necessary for public employees to receive pension or other retirement benefits pursuant to Chapter 145., 742., 3307., 3309., or 5505. of the Revised Code;

(2) The mandatory retirement of uniformed patrol officers of the state highway patrol as provided in section 5505.16 of the Revised Code;

(3) The maximum age requirements for appointment as a patrol officer in the state highway patrol established by section 5503.01 of the Revised Code;

(4) The maximum age requirements established for original appointment to a police department or fire department in sections 124.41 and 124.42 of the Revised Code;

(5) Any maximum age not in conflict with federal law that may be established by a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or resolution of a board of township trustees for original appointment as a police officer or firefighter;

(6) Any mandatory retirement provision not in conflict with federal law of a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or resolution of a board of township trustees pertaining to police officers and firefighters;

(7) Until January 1, 1994, the mandatory retirement of any employee who has attained seventy years of age and who is serving under a contract of unlimited tenure, or similar arrangement providing for unlimited tenure, at an institution of higher education as defined in the "Education Amendments of 1980," 94 Stat. 1503, 20 U.S.C.A. 1141(a).

(N)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (N)(1)(b) of this section, for purposes of divisions (A) to (E) of this section, a disability does not include any physiological disorder or condition, mental or psychological disorder, or disease or condition caused by an illegal use of any controlled substance by an employee, applicant, or other person, if an employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee acts on the basis of that illegal use.

(b) Division (N)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to an employee, applicant, or other person who satisfies any of the following:

(i) The employee, applicant, or other person has successfully completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance, or the employee, applicant, or other person otherwise successfully has been rehabilitated and no longer is engaging in that illegal use.

(ii) The employee, applicant, or other person is participating in a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance.

(iii) The employee, applicant, or other person is erroneously regarded as engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance, but the employee, applicant, or other person is not engaging in that illegal use.

(2) Divisions (A) to (E) of this section do not prohibit an employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee from doing any of the following:

(a) Adopting or administering reasonable policies or procedures, including, but not limited to, testing for the illegal use of any controlled substance, that are designed to ensure that an individual described in division (N)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance;

(b) Prohibiting the illegal use of controlled substances and the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;

(c) Requiring that employees not be under the influence of alcohol or not be engaged in the illegal use of any controlled substance at the workplace;

(d) Requiring that employees behave in conformance with the requirements established under "The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 4304, 41 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;

(e) Holding an employee who engages in the illegal use of any controlled substance or who has alcoholism to the same qualification standards for employment or job performance, and the same behavior, to which the employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management committee holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory performance or behavior is related to an employee's illegal use of a controlled substance or alcoholism;

(f) Exercising other authority recognized in the "Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101, as amended, including, but not limited to, requiring employees to comply with any applicable federal standards.

(3) For purposes of this chapter, a test to determine the illegal use of any controlled substance does not include a medical examination.

(4) Division (N) of this section does not encourage, prohibit, or authorize, and shall not be construed as encouraging, prohibiting, or authorizing, the conduct of testing for the illegal use of any controlled substance by employees, applicants, or other persons, or the making of employment decisions based on the results of that type of testing.

(O) This section does not apply to a religious corporation, association, educational institution, or society with respect to the employment of an individual of a particular religion to perform work connected with the carrying on by that religious corporation, association, educational institution, or society of its activities.

The unlawful discriminatory practices defined in this section do not make it unlawful for a person or an appointing authority administering an examination under section 124.23 of the Revised Code to obtain information about an applicant's military status for the purpose of determining if the applicant is eligible for the additional credit that is available under that section.

Sec. 4729.291. (A) Except when provided under section 4731.97 of the Revised Code, when a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs personally furnishes drugs to a patient pursuant to division (B) of section 4729.29 of the Revised Code, the prescriber shall ensure that the drugs are labeled and packaged in accordance with state and federal drug laws and any rules and regulations adopted pursuant to those laws. Records of purchase and disposition of all drugs personally furnished to patients shall be maintained by the prescriber in accordance with state and federal drug statutes and any rules adopted pursuant to those statutes.

(B) When personally furnishing to a patient RU-486 (mifepristone), a prescriber is subject to ~~sections~~ section 2919.123 ~~and 2919.124~~ of the Revised Code.

(C)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D) and (E) of this section, no prescriber shall do either of the following:

(a) In any thirty-day period, personally furnish to or for patients, taken as a whole, controlled substances in an amount that exceeds a total of two thousand five hundred dosage units;

(b) In any seventy-two-hour period, personally furnish to or for a patient an amount of a controlled substance that exceeds the amount necessary for the patient's use in a seventy-two-hour period.

(2) The state board of pharmacy may impose a fine of not more than five thousand dollars on a prescriber who fails to comply with the limits established under division (C)(1) of this section. A separate fine may be imposed for each instance of failing to comply with the limits. In imposing the fine, the board's actions shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(D) None of the following shall be counted in determining whether the amounts specified in division (C)(1) of this section have been exceeded:

(1) Methadone personally furnished to patients for the purpose of treating drug dependence or addiction, if the prescriber meets the conditions specified in 21 C.F.R. 1306.07;

(2) Buprenorphine personally furnished to patients for the purpose of treating drug dependence or addiction as part of an opioid treatment program licensed under section 5119.37 of the Revised Code.

(3) Controlled substances personally furnished to research subjects by a facility conducting clinical research in studies approved by a hospital-based institutional review board or an institutional review board accredited by the association for the accreditation of human research protection programs.

(E) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to a prescriber who is a veterinarian.

Sec. 4731.22. (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, may limit, revoke, or suspend a license or certificate to practice or certificate to recommend, refuse to grant a license or certificate, refuse to renew a license or certificate, refuse to reinstate a license or certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a license or certificate if the individual applying for or holding the license or certificate is found by the board to have committed fraud during the administration of the examination for a license or certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for, renewing, or securing any license or certificate to practice or certificate to recommend issued by the board.

(B) Except as provided in division (P) of this section, the board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or suspend a license or certificate to practice or certificate to recommend, refuse to issue a license or certificate, refuse to renew a license or certificate, refuse to reinstate a license or certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a license or certificate for one or more of the following reasons:

(1) Permitting one's name or one's license or certificate to practice to be used by a person, group, or corporation when the individual concerned is not actually directing the treatment given;

(2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other modalities for treatment of disease;

(3) Except as provided in section 4731.97 of the Revised Code, selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;

(4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.

For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a professional confidence" does not include providing any information, documents, or reports under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code to a child fatality review board; does not include providing any information, documents, or reports under sections 307.631 to 307.6410 of the Revised Code to a drug overdose fatality review committee, a suicide fatality review committee, or hybrid drug overdose fatality and suicide fatality review committee; does not include providing any information, documents, or reports under sections 307.651 to 307.659 of the Revised Code to a domestic violence fatality review board; does not include providing any information, documents, or reports to the director of health pursuant to guidelines established under section 3701.70 of the Revised Code; does not include written notice to a mental health professional under section 4731.62 of the Revised Code; and does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 or 4731.62 of the Revised Code upon a physician who makes a report in accordance with section 2305.33 or notifies a mental health professional in accordance with section 4731.62 of the Revised Code. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any license or certificate to practice issued by the board.

As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, or includes representations or implications that in reasonable probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to misunderstand or be deceived.

(6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;

(7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can be permanently cured;

(8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;

(9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony;

(10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;

(12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;

(14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the board upon a license or certificate to practice;

(16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this chapter;

(17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;

(18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American medical association, the American osteopathic association, the American podiatric medical association, or any other national professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies of the codes of ethics of the various national professional organizations. The individual whose license or certificate is being suspended or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the individual's profession.

For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of ethics of a national professional organization" does not include any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or perceptive skills.

In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a possible violation, shall refer any individual who is authorized to practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application pursuant to this chapter to the monitoring organization that conducts the confidential monitoring program established under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code. The board also may compel the individual to submit to a mental examination, physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. An individual affected under this division shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's license or certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who applies for or receives a license or certificate to practice under this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.

(20) Except as provided in division (F)(1)(b) of section 4731.282 of the Revised Code or when civil penalties are imposed under section 4731.225 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or any rule promulgated by the board.

This division does not apply to a violation or attempted violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(21) The violation of ~~section 3701.79 of the Revised Code or of~~ any abortion rule adopted by the director of health pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;

(22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;

(23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;

(24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or termination of clinical privileges by the United States department of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by the drug enforcement administration of the United States department of justice;

(25) Termination or suspension from participation in the medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and human services or other responsible agency;

(26) Impairment of ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of substance use disorder or excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice.

For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an application for or holding a license or certificate to practice under this chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute privileged communications.

If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or any applicant for licensure or certification to practice suffers such impairment, the board shall refer the individual to the monitoring organization that conducts the confidential monitoring program established under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code. The board also may compel the individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the examination and who is approved under section 4731.251 of the Revised Code.

Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's license or certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure or certification to practice, to submit to treatment.

Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a license or certificate suspended under this division, the impaired practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care under the provisions of the practitioner's license or certificate. The demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under section 4731.251 of the Revised Code that the individual has successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;

(b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare contract or consent agreement;

(c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by individuals or providers approved by the board for making the assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.

The board may reinstate a license or certificate suspended under this division after that demonstration and after the individual has entered into a written consent agreement.

When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for at least two years of annual written progress reports made under penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained sobriety.

(27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised Code;

(28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that individual;

(b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay.

(29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of the Revised Code;

(30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's medical record;

(31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that chapter;

(32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard care arrangement;

(33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the Revised Code;

(34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board in an investigative interview, an investigative office conference, at a deposition, or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;

(35) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;

(36) Assisting suicide, as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code;

~~(37) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 2317.561 of the Revised Code;~~

~~(38)~~ (37) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;

~~(39) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to post the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised Code;~~

~~(40)~~ (38) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code for the operation of or the provision of care at a pain management clinic;

~~(41)~~ (39) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code for providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals at a pain management clinic;

~~(42)~~ (40) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 4729.79 or 4731.055 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;

(43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 2919.171, 2919.202, or 2919.203 of the Revised Code or failure to submit to the department of health in accordance with a court order a complete report as described in section 2919.171 or 2919.202 of the Revised Code;

~~(44)~~ (41) Practicing at a facility that is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the person operating the facility has obtained and maintains the license with the classification;

~~(45)~~ (42) Owning a facility that is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the facility is licensed with the classification;

(46) Failure to comply with any of the requirements regarding making or maintaining medical records or documents described in division (A) of section 2919.192, division (C) of section 2919.193, division (B) of section 2919.195, or division (A) of section 2919.196 of the Revised Code;

~~(47)~~ (43) Failure to comply with the requirements in section 3719.061 of the Revised Code before issuing for a minor a prescription for an opioid analgesic, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code;

~~(48)~~ (44) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 4731.30 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under section 4731.301 of the Revised Code when recommending treatment with medical marijuana;

~~(49)~~ (45) A pattern of continuous or repeated violations of division (E)(2) or (3) of section 3963.02 of the Revised Code;

~~(50)~~ (46) Failure to fulfill the responsibilities of a collaboration agreement entered into with an athletic trainer as described in section 4755.621 of the Revised Code;

~~(51)~~ (47) Failure to take the steps specified in section 4731.911 of the Revised Code following an abortion or attempted abortion in an ambulatory surgical facility or other location that is not a hospital when a child is born alive.

(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall be of no force or effect.

A telephone conference call may be utilized for ratification of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an individual's license or certificate to practice or certificate to recommend. The telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code.

If the board takes disciplinary action against an individual under division (B) of this section for a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 ~~or 2919.124~~ of the Revised Code, the disciplinary action shall consist of a suspension of the individual's license or certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's license or certificate to practice. Any consent agreement entered into under this division with an individual that pertains to a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of that section shall provide for a suspension of the individual's license or certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's license or certificate to practice.

(D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.

(E) The sealing or expungement of conviction records by any court shall have no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing prior to the court's order to seal or expunge the records. The board shall not be required to seal, expunge, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.

(F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a signed writing any information that the person may have that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number and shall be recorded by the board.

(2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication of the case.

(3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under this chapter, or in conducting an inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code, the board may question witnesses, conduct interviews, administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and copy any books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and approval of the secretary of the board.

(a) Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the secretary shall determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.

(b) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

(c) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee or agent designated by the board. Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual place of residence, usual place of business, or address on file with the board. When serving a subpoena to an applicant for or the holder of a license or certificate issued under this chapter, service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept delivery. If the person being served refuses to accept the subpoena or is not located, service may be made to an attorney who notifies the board that the attorney is representing the person.

(d) A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.

(4) All hearings, investigations, and inspections of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.

(5) A report required to be submitted to the board under this chapter, a complaint, or information received by the board pursuant to an investigation or pursuant to an inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action.

The board shall conduct all investigations or inspections and proceedings in a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make public the names or any other identifying information about patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide physician-patient relationship exists.

The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation or inspection, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state medical board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

(6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding three months. The report shall contain the following information for each case with which the board has completed its activities:

(a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged violation;

(b) The type of license or certificate to practice, if any, held by the individual against whom the complaint is directed;

(d) The disposition of the case.

The report shall state how many cases are still pending and shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both of the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an individual's license or certificate to practice or certificate to recommend without a prior hearing:

(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division (B) of this section;

(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.

Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a license or certificate without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.

The board shall serve a written order of suspension in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.

Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.

(H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or (13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's license or certificate to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held under this division, that the individual committed the act or if no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (B) of this section.

(I) The license or certificate to practice issued to an individual under this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are automatically suspended as of the date of the individual's second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 ~~or 2919.124~~ of the Revised Code. In addition, the license or certificate to practice or certificate to recommend issued to an individual under this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are automatically suspended as of the date the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any of the following criminal offenses in this state or a substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered practicing without a license or certificate.

The board shall notify the individual subject to the suspension in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose license or certificate is automatically suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is applicable:

(1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 ~~or 2919.124~~ of the Revised Code, the board shall enter an order suspending the individual's license or certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, imposing a more serious sanction involving the individual's license or certificate to practice.

(2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking the individual's license or certificate to practice.

(J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) or (B) of this section.

(K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the individual's license or certificate to practice may be reinstated. The board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for reinstatement. Reinstatement of a license or certificate suspended pursuant to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.

(L) When the board refuses to grant or issue a license or certificate to practice to an applicant, revokes an individual's license or certificate to practice, refuses to renew an individual's license or certificate to practice, or refuses to reinstate an individual's license or certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold a license or certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an application for reinstatement of the license or certificate or for issuance of a new license or certificate.

(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(1) The surrender of a license or certificate issued under this chapter shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. A telephone conference call may be utilized for acceptance of the surrender of an individual's license or certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. Reinstatement of a license or certificate surrendered to the board requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.

(2) An application for a license or certificate made under the provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval of the board.

(3) Failure by an individual to renew a license or certificate to practice in accordance with this chapter or a certificate to recommend in accordance with rules adopted under section 4731.301 of the Revised Code does not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action under this section against the individual.

(4) The placement of an individual's license on retired status, as described in section 4731.283 of the Revised Code, does not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action against the individual with regard to the license as it existed before being placed on retired status.

(5) At the request of the board, a license or certificate holder shall immediately surrender to the board a license or certificate that the board has suspended, revoked, or permanently revoked.

(N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of this section against any person who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.

(O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board shall develop and implement a quality intervention program designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do all of the following:

(1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation the board conducts under this section;

(2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;

(3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service providers and approve individual educational programs recommended by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each individual undertaking a recommended individual educational program.

(4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an individual educational program and require further monitoring of the individual who completed the program or other action that the board determines to be appropriate;

(5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention program.

An individual who participates in an individual educational program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial obligations arising from that educational program.

(P) The board shall not refuse to issue a license to an applicant because of a conviction, plea of guilty, judicial finding of guilt, judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, or the commission of an act that constitutes a criminal offense, unless the refusal is in accordance with section 9.79 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4731.223. (A) As used in this section, "prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) Whenever any person holding a valid license or certificate issued pursuant to this chapter pleads guilty to, is subject to a judicial finding of guilt of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for a violation of Chapter 2907., 2925., or 3719. of the Revised Code or of any substantively comparable ordinance of a municipal corporation in connection with the person's practice, or for a second or subsequent time pleads guilty to, or is subject to a judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 ~~or 2919.124~~ of the Revised Code, the prosecutor in the case, on forms prescribed and provided by the state medical board, shall promptly notify the board of the conviction or guilty plea. Within thirty days of receipt of that information, the board shall initiate action in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether to suspend or revoke the license or certificate under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

(C) The prosecutor in any case against any person holding a valid license or certificate issued pursuant to this chapter, on forms prescribed and provided by the state medical board, shall notify the board of any of the following:

(1) A plea of guilty to, a finding of guilt by a jury or court of, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for a felony, or a case in which the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds of a felony charge;

(2) A plea of guilty to, a finding of guilt by a jury or court of, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice, or a case in which the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds of a charge of a misdemeanor, if the alleged act was committed in the course of practice;

(3) A plea of guilty to, a finding of guilt by a jury or court of, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, or a case in which the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds of a charge of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude.

The report shall include the name and address of the license or certificate holder, the nature of the offense for which the action was taken, and the certified court documents recording the action.

Sec. 4731.281. (A)(1) A license issued under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery shall be valid for a two-year period unless revoked or suspended. A license shall expire on the date that is two years from the date of issuance and may be renewed for additional two-year periods. Applications for renewal shall be submitted to the state medical board in a manner prescribed by the board.

Each application shall be accompanied by a biennial renewal fee of three hundred five dollars.

The board shall deposit the fee in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code, except that the board shall deposit twenty dollars of the fee into the state treasury to the credit of the physician loan repayment fund created by section 3702.78 of the Revised Code.

(2) The board shall provide a renewal notice to every person holding a license to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery, a renewal notice. The board may provide the notice to the person through the secretary of any recognized medical, osteopathic, or podiatric society. The notice shall be provided to the person at least one month prior to the date on which the person's license expires.

(3) Failure of any person to receive a notice of renewal from the board shall not excuse the person from the requirements contained in this section.

(4) The board's notice shall inform the applicant of the renewal procedure. The board shall provide the application for renewal in a form determined by the board.

(5) The applicant shall provide in the application the applicant's full name; the applicant's residence address, business address, and electronic mail address; the number of the applicant's license to practice; and any other information required by the board.

(6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this section, in the case of an applicant who prescribes or personally furnishes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, the applicant shall certify to the board whether the applicant has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(b) The requirement described in division (A)(6)(a) of this section does not apply if any of the following is the case:

(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state medical board pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the applicant has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.

(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

(iii) The applicant does not practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery in this state.

(c) If an applicant certifies to the state medical board that the applicant has been granted access to the drug database and the board finds through an audit or other means that the applicant has not been granted access, the board may take action under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

(7) The applicant shall indicate whether the applicant currently collaborates, as that term is defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code, with any clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse-midwives, or certified nurse practitioners.

(8) The applicant shall report any criminal offense to which the applicant has pleaded guilty, of which the applicant has been found guilty, or for which the applicant has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction, since last submitting an application for a license to practice or renewal of a license.

(9) The applicant shall execute and deliver the application to the board in a manner prescribed by the board.

(B) The board shall renew a license under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery upon application and qualification therefor in accordance with this section. A renewal shall be valid for a two-year period.

(C) Failure of any license holder to renew and comply with this section shall operate automatically to suspend the holder's license to practice and if applicable, the holder's certificate to recommend issued under section 4731.30 of the Revised Code. Continued practice after the suspension shall be considered as practicing in violation of section 4731.41, 4731.43, or 4731.60 of the Revised Code.

If the license has been suspended pursuant to this division for two years or less, it may be reinstated. The board shall reinstate a license to practice suspended for failure to renew upon an applicant's submission of a renewal application and payment of a reinstatement fee of four hundred five dollars.

If the license has been suspended pursuant to this division for more than two years, it may be restored. Subject to section 4731.222 of the Revised Code, the board may restore a license to practice suspended for failure to renew upon an applicant's submission of a restoration application, payment of a restoration fee of five hundred five dollars, and compliance with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The board shall not restore to an applicant a license unless the board, in its discretion, decides that the results of the criminal records check do not make the applicant ineligible for a license issued pursuant to section 4731.14 or 4731.56 of the Revised Code.

Any reinstatement or restoration of a license to practice under this section shall operate automatically to renew the holder's certificate to recommend.

(D) The state medical board may obtain information not protected by statutory or common law privilege from courts and other sources concerning malpractice claims against any person holding a license to practice under this chapter or practicing as provided in section 4731.36 of the Revised Code.

(E) Each renewal notice provided by the board under division (A)(2) of this section to a person holding a license to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery shall inform the applicant of the reporting requirement established by division (H) of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code. At the discretion of the board, the information may be included on the application for renewal or on an accompanying page.

~~(F)~~ Each person holding a license to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery shall give notice to the board of a change in the license holder's residence address, business address, or electronic mail address not later than thirty days after the change occurs.

Sec. 4731.293. (A) The state medical board shall issue, without examination, a clinical research faculty certificate to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery to any person who applies for the certificate and provides to the board satisfactory evidence of both of the following:

(1) That the applicant holds a current, unrestricted license to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery issued by another state or country;

(2) That the applicant has been appointed to serve in this state on the academic staff of a medical school accredited by the liaison committee on medical education, an osteopathic medical school accredited by the American osteopathic association, or a college of podiatric medicine and surgery in good standing with the board.

(B) The holder of a clinical research faculty certificate may do one of the following, as applicable:

(1) Practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery only as is incidental to the certificate holder's teaching or research duties at the medical school or a teaching hospital affiliated with the school;

(2) Practice podiatric medicine and surgery only as is incidental to the certificate holder's teaching or research duties at the college of podiatric medicine and surgery or a teaching hospital affiliated with the college.

(C) The board may revoke a certificate on receiving proof satisfactory to the board that the certificate holder has engaged in practice in this state outside the scope of the certificate or that there are grounds for action against the certificate holder under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.

(D) A clinical research faculty certificate is valid for three years, except that the certificate ceases to be valid if the holder's academic staff appointment described in division (A)(2) of this section is no longer valid or the certificate is revoked pursuant to division (C) of this section.

(E)(1) The board shall provide a renewal notice to the certificate holder at least one month before the certificate expires. Failure of a certificate holder to receive a notice of renewal from the board shall not excuse the certificate holder from the requirements contained in this section. The notice shall inform the certificate holder of the renewal procedure. ~~The notice also shall inform the certificate holder of the reporting requirement established by division (H) of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code.~~ At the discretion of the board, the information may be included on the application for renewal or on an accompanying page.

(2) A clinical research faculty certificate may be renewed for an additional three-year period. There is no limit on the number of times a certificate may be renewed. A person seeking renewal of a certificate shall apply to the board. The board shall provide the application for renewal in a form determined by the board.

(3) An applicant is eligible for renewal if the applicant does all of the following:

(a) Reports any criminal offense to which the applicant has pleaded guilty, of which the applicant has been found guilty, or for which the applicant has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction, since last filing an application for a clinical research faculty certificate;

(b) Provides evidence satisfactory to the board of both of the following:

(i) That the applicant continues to maintain a current, unrestricted license to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery issued by another state or country;

(ii) That the applicant's initial appointment to serve in this state on the academic staff of a school or college is still valid or has been renewed.

(4) Regardless of whether the certificate has expired, a person who was granted a visiting medical faculty certificate under this section as it existed immediately prior to June 6, 2012, may apply for a clinical research faculty certificate as a renewal. The board may issue the clinical research faculty certificate if the applicant meets the requirements of division (E)(3) of this section. The board may not issue a clinical research faculty certificate if the visiting medical faculty certificate was revoked.

(F) A person holding a clinical research faculty certificate issued under this section shall not be required to obtain a certificate under Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code.

(G) The board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4743.09. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Durable medical equipment" means a type of equipment, such as a remote monitoring device utilized by a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse in accordance with this section, that can withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve a medical purpose, and generally is not useful to a person in the absence of illness or injury and, in addition, includes repair and replacement parts for the equipment.

(2) "Facility fee" means any fee charged or billed for telehealth services provided in a facility that is intended to compensate the facility for its operational expenses and is separate and distinct from a professional fee.

(3) "Health care professional" means:

(a) An advanced practice registered nurse, as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code;

(b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code to practice optometry;

(d) A physician assistant licensed under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code;

(e) A physician licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery;

(f) A psychologist, independent school psychologist, or school psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code;

(g) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code;

(h) An audiologist or speech-language pathologist licensed under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;

(i) An occupational therapist or physical therapist licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(j) An occupational therapy assistant or physical therapist assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(k) A professional clinical counselor, independent social worker, independent marriage and family therapist, art therapist, or music therapist licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code;

(l) An independent chemical dependency counselor licensed under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code;

(m) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code;

(n) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 4761. of the Revised Code;

(o) A genetic counselor licensed under Chapter 4778. of the Revised Code;

(p) A certified Ohio behavior analyst certified under Chapter 4783. of the Revised Code.

(4) "Health care professional licensing board" means any of the following:

(a) The board of nursing;

(b) The state vision professionals board;

(d) The state medical board;

(e) The state board of psychology;

(f) The state chiropractic board;

(g) The state speech and hearing professionals board;

(h) The Ohio occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board;

(i) The counselor, social worker, and marriage and family therapist board;

(j) The chemical dependency professionals board.

(5) "Health plan issuer" has the same meaning as in section 3922.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Telehealth services" means health care services provided through the use of information and communication technology by a health care professional, within the professional's scope of practice, who is located at a site other than the site where either of the following is located:

(a) The patient receiving the services;

(b) Another health care professional with whom the provider of the services is consulting regarding the patient.

(B)(1) Each health care professional licensing board shall permit a health care professional under its jurisdiction to provide the professional's services as telehealth services in accordance with this section. Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, a board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to implement this section. All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Any such rules adopted by a board are not subject to the requirements of division (F) of section 121.95 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, the rules adopted by a health care professional licensing board under this section shall establish a standard of care for telehealth services that is equal to the standard of care for in-person services.

(b) Subject to division (B)(2)(c) of this section, a board may require an initial in-person visit prior to prescribing a schedule II controlled substance to a new patient, equivalent to applicable state and federal requirements.

(c)(i) A board shall not require an initial in-person visit for a new patient whose medical record indicates that the patient is receiving hospice or palliative care, who is receiving medication-assisted treatment or any other medication for opioid-use disorder, who is a patient with a mental health condition, or who, as determined by the clinical judgment of a health care professional, is in an emergency situation.

(ii) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 3796.01 of the Revised Code, medical marijuana shall not be considered a schedule II controlled substance.

(1) A health care professional may use synchronous or asynchronous technology to provide telehealth services to a patient during an initial visit if the appropriate standard of care for an initial visit is satisfied.

(2) A health care professional may deny a patient telehealth services and, instead, require the patient to undergo an in-person visit.

(3) When providing telehealth services in accordance with this section, a health care professional shall comply with all requirements under state and federal law regarding the protection of patient information. A health care professional shall ensure that any username or password information and any electronic communications between the professional and a patient are securely transmitted and stored.

(4) A health care professional may use synchronous or asynchronous technology to provide telehealth services to a patient during an annual visit if the appropriate standard of care for an annual visit is satisfied.

(5) In the case of a health care professional who is a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse, both of the following apply:

(a) The professional may provide telehealth services to a patient located outside of this state if permitted by the laws of the state in which the patient is located.

(b) The professional may provide telehealth services through the use of medical devices that enable remote monitoring, including such activities as monitoring a patient's blood pressure, heart rate, or glucose level.

(D) When a patient has consented to receiving telehealth services, the health care professional who provides those services is not liable in damages under any claim made on the basis that the services do not meet the same standard of care that would apply if the services were provided in-person.

(E)(1) A health care professional providing telehealth services shall not charge a patient or a health plan issuer covering telehealth services under section 3902.30 of the Revised Code any of the following: a facility fee, an origination fee, or any fee associated with the cost of the equipment used at the provider site to provide telehealth services.

A health care professional providing telehealth services may charge a health plan issuer for durable medical equipment used at a patient or client site.

(2) A health care professional may negotiate with a health plan issuer to establish a reimbursement rate for fees associated with the administrative costs incurred in providing telehealth services as long as a patient is not responsible for any portion of the fee.

(3) A health care professional providing telehealth services shall obtain a patient's consent before billing for the cost of providing the services, but the requirement to do so applies only once.

(F) Nothing in this section limits or otherwise affects any other provision of the Revised Code that requires a health care professional who is not a physician to practice under the supervision of, in collaboration with, in consultation with, or pursuant to the referral of another health care professional.

(G) It is the intent of the general assembly, through the amendments to this section, to expand access to and investment in telehealth services in this state in congruence with the expansion and investment in telehealth services made during the COVID-19 pandemic.

(H) Reproductive health care and related services may be provided as telehealth services in accordance with this section.

Section 2. That existing sections 109.572, 2305.11, 2317.02, 2919.10, 2919.12, 2953.25, 3701.341, 3701.792, 3702.30, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4729.291, 4731.22, 4731.223, 4731.281, 4731.293, and 4743.09 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

Section 3. That sections 2307.54, 2317.56, 2317.561, 2919.101, 2919.124, 2919.171, 2919.19, 2919.191, 2919.192, 2919.193, 2919.194, 2919.195, 2919.196, 2919.197, 2919.198, 2919.199, 2919.1910, 2919.1912, 2919.1913, 2919.20, 2919.201, 2919.202, 2919.203, 2919.204, 2919.205, 3701.79, 3701.791, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3702.308, 3702.309, 3702.3010, 3702.3011, 3726.01, 3726.02, 3726.03, 3726.04, 3726.041, 3726.042, 3726.05, 3726.09, 3726.10, 3726.11, 3726.12, 3726.13, 3726.14, 3726.15, 3726.16, 3726.95, 3726.99, 3727.60, 4717.271, 5101.57, and 5103.11 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

Section 4. This act shall be known as the Reproductive Care Act.