As Introduced

136th General Assembly

Regular Session S. B. No. 236

2025-2026

A BILL

To amend sections 149.43, 2923.11, 2923.125, 2923.128, and 2923.20 and to enact sections 2923.133, 2923.22, 2923.221, and 4731.058 of the Revised Code to enact the Suicide Self-Defense Act, relative to the creation of a do not possess firearms registry.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

Section 1. That sections 149.43, 2923.11, 2923.125, 2923.128, and 2923.20 be amended and sections 2923.133, 2923.22, 2923.221, and 4731.058 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 149.43. (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:

(a) Medical records;

(b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings, to proceedings related to the imposition of community control sanctions and post-release control sanctions, or to proceedings related to determinations under section 2967.271 of the Revised Code regarding the release or maintained incarceration of an offender to whom that section applies;

(c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to appeals of actions arising under those sections;

(d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of health under sections 3705.12 to 3705.124 of the Revised Code;

(e) Information in a record contained in the putative father registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the information is held by the department of job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a child support enforcement agency;

(f) Records specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of the Revised Code;

(g) Trial preparation records;

(h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;

(i) Records containing information that is confidential under section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;

(j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to section 109.573 of the Revised Code;

(k) Inmate records released by the department of rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 of the Revised Code;

(l) Records maintained by the department of youth services pertaining to children in its custody released by the department of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;

(m) Intellectual property records;

(n) Donor profile records;

(o) Records maintained by the department of job and family services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;

(p) Designated public service worker residential and familial information;

(q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code;

(r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of a person under the age of eighteen;

(s) In the case of a child fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code or a review conducted pursuant to guidelines established by the director of health under section 3701.70 of the Revised Code, records provided to the board or director, statements made by board members during meetings of the board or by persons participating in the director's review, and all work products of the board or director, and in the case of a child fatality review board, child fatality review data submitted by the board to the department of health or a national child death review database, other than the report prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the Revised Code;

(t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code other than the information released under that section;

(u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that the board of executives of long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.15 of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private or government entity to administer;

(v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or federal law;

(w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;

(x) Financial statements and data any person submits for any purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting for financial assistance from the agency, and information that identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from financial assistance from the agency;

(y) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;

(z) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under section 317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division (B)(2) of that section;

(aa) Usage information including names and addresses of specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally owned or operated public utility;

(bb) Records described in division (C) of section 187.04 of the Revised Code that are not designated to be made available to the public as provided in that division;

(cc) Information and records that are made confidential, privileged, and not subject to disclosure under divisions (B) and (C) of section 2949.221 of the Revised Code;

(dd) Personal information, as defined in section 149.45 of the Revised Code;

(ee) The confidential name, address, and other personally identifiable information of a program participant in the address confidentiality program established under sections 111.41 to 111.47 of the Revised Code, including the contents of any application for absent voter's ballots, absent voter's ballot identification envelope statement of voter, or provisional ballot affirmation completed by a program participant who has a confidential voter registration record; records or portions of records pertaining to that program that identify the number of program participants that reside within a precinct, ward, township, municipal corporation, county, or any other geographic area smaller than the state; and any real property confidentiality notice filed under section 111.431 of the Revised Code and the information described in division (C) of that section. As used in this division, "confidential address" and "program participant" have the meaning defined in section 111.41 of the Revised Code.

(ff) Orders for active military service of an individual serving or with previous service in the armed forces of the United States, including a reserve component, or the Ohio organized militia, except that, such order becomes a public record on the day that is fifteen years after the published date or effective date of the call to order;

(gg) The name, address, contact information, or other personal information of an individual who is less than eighteen years of age that is included in any record related to a traffic accident involving a school vehicle in which the individual was an occupant at the time of the accident;

(hh) Protected health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, that is in a claim for payment for a health care product, service, or procedure, as well as any other health claims data in another document that reveals the identity of an individual who is the subject of the data or could be used to reveal that individual's identity;

(ii) Any depiction by photograph, film, videotape, or printed or digital image under either of the following circumstances:

(i) The depiction is that of a victim of an offense the release of which would be, to a reasonable person of ordinary sensibilities, an offensive and objectionable intrusion into the victim's expectation of bodily privacy and integrity.

(ii) The depiction captures or depicts the victim of a sexually oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code, at the actual occurrence of that offense.

(jj) Restricted portions of a body-worn camera or dashboard camera recording;

(kk) In the case of a fetal-infant mortality review board acting under sections 3707.70 to 3707.77 of the Revised Code, records, documents, reports, or other information presented to the board or a person abstracting such materials on the board's behalf, statements made by review board members during board meetings, all work products of the board, and data submitted by the board to the department of health or a national infant death review database, other than the report prepared pursuant to section 3707.77 of the Revised Code.

(ll) Records, documents, reports, or other information presented to the pregnancy-associated mortality review board established under section 3738.01 of the Revised Code, statements made by board members during board meetings, all work products of the board, and data submitted by the board to the department of health, other than the biennial reports prepared under section 3738.08 of the Revised Code;

(mm) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1)(oo) of this section, telephone numbers for a victim, as defined in section 2930.01 of the Revised Code or a witness to a crime that are listed on any law enforcement record or report.

(nn) A preneed funeral contract, as defined in section 4717.01 of the Revised Code, and contract terms and personally identifying information of a preneed funeral contract, that is contained in a report submitted by or for a funeral home to the board of embalmers and funeral directors under division (C) of section 4717.13, division (J) of section 4717.31, or section 4717.41 of the Revised Code.

(oo) Telephone numbers for a party to a motor vehicle accident subject to the requirements of section 5502.11 of the Revised Code that are listed on any law enforcement record or report, except that the telephone numbers described in this division are not excluded from the definition of "public record" under this division on and after the thirtieth day after the occurrence of the motor vehicle accident.

(pp) Records pertaining to individuals who complete training under section 5502.703 of the Revised Code to be permitted by a school district board of education or governing body of a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, a STEM school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, or a chartered nonpublic school to convey deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance into a school safety zone;

(qq) Records, documents, reports, or other information presented to a domestic violence fatality review board established under section 307.651 of the Revised Code, statements made by board members during board meetings, all work products of the board, and data submitted by the board to the department of health, other than a report prepared pursuant to section 307.656 of the Revised Code;

(rr) Records, documents, and information the release of which is prohibited under sections 2930.04 and 2930.07 of the Revised Code;

(ss) Records of an existing qualified nonprofit corporation that creates a special improvement district under Chapter 1710. of the Revised Code that do not pertain to a purpose for which the district is created;

(tt) Educational support services data, as defined in section 3319.325 of the Revised Code;

(uu) Records of the past, current, and future work schedule of a designated public service worker. As used in division (A)(1)(uu) of this section, "work schedule" does not include the docket of cases of a court, judge, or magistrate;

(vv) A request form or confirmation letter submitted to a public office under section 149.45 of the Revised Code;

(ww) An affidavit or confirmation letter submitted under section 319.28 of the Revised Code;

(xx) License or certificate application or renewal responses and supporting documentation submitted to the state medical board regarding an applicant's, or a license or certificate holder's, inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of a medical condition;

(yy) An application for a request to be enrolled in or removed from the do not possess firearms registry created under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code and any other personal identifying information contained in or related to the registry.

A record that is not a public record under division (A)(1) of this section and that, under law, is permanently retained becomes a public record on the day that is seventy-five years after the day on which the record was created, or in the case of a record that is not a public record under division (A)(1)(uu) of this section that is retained, three years after the day on which the record was created, except for any record protected by the attorney-client privilege, a trial preparation record as defined in this section, a statement prohibiting the release of identifying information signed under section 3107.083 of the Revised Code, a denial of release form filed pursuant to section 3107.46 of the Revised Code, or any record that is exempt from release or disclosure under section 149.433 of the Revised Code. If the record is a birth certificate and a biological parent's name redaction request form has been accepted under section 3107.391 of the Revised Code, the name of that parent shall be redacted from the birth certificate before it is released under this paragraph. If any other section of the Revised Code establishes a time period for disclosure of a record that conflicts with the time period specified in this section, the time period in the other section prevails.

(2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but only to the extent that the release of the record would create a high probability of disclosure of any of the following:

(a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised;

(b) Information provided by an information source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or witness's identity;

(d) Information that would endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or a confidential information source.

(3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.

(4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains information that is specifically compiled in reasonable anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or proceeding, including the independent thought processes and personal trial preparation of an attorney.

(5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than a financial or administrative record, that is produced or collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been publicly released, published, or patented.

(6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or potential donors to a public institution of higher education except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.

(7) "Designated public service worker" means a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, county or multicounty corrections officer, community-based correctional facility employee, designated Ohio national guard member, protective services worker, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, medical director or member of a cooperating physician advisory board of an emergency medical service organization, state board of pharmacy employee, investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, emergency service telecommunicator, forensic mental health provider, mental health evaluation provider, regional psychiatric hospital employee, judge, magistrate, or federal law enforcement officer.

(8) "Designated public service worker residential and familial information" means any information that discloses any of the following about a designated public service worker:

(a) The address of the actual personal residence of a designated public service worker, except for the following information:

(i) The address of the actual personal residence of a prosecuting attorney or judge; and

(ii) The state or political subdivision in which a designated public service worker resides.

(b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in an employee assistance program;

(c) The social security number, the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical information pertaining to, a designated public service worker;

(d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided to a designated public service worker by the designated public service worker's employer;

(e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment benefit deduction made by the designated public service worker's employer from the designated public service worker's compensation, unless the amount of the deduction is required by state or federal law;

(f) The name, the residential address, the name of the employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a designated public service worker;

(g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's appointing authority.

(9) As used in divisions (A)(7) and (15) to (17) of this section:

"Peace officer" has the meaning defined in section 109.71 of the Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, and perform the duties of the sheriff.

"Correctional employee" means any employee of the department of rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and persons under supervision.

"County or multicounty corrections officer" means any corrections officer employed by any county or multicounty correctional facility.

"Designated Ohio national guard member" means a member of the Ohio national guard who is participating in duties related to remotely piloted aircraft, including, but not limited to, pilots, sensor operators, and mission intelligence personnel, duties related to special forces operations, or duties related to cybersecurity, and is designated by the adjutant general as a designated public service worker for those purposes.

"Protective services worker" means any employee of a county agency who is responsible for child protective services, child support services, or adult protective services.

"Youth services employee" means any employee of the department of youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job duties has or has had contact with children committed to the custody of the department of youth services.

"Firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, township, fire district, or village.

"EMT" means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency medical services for a public emergency medical service organization. "Emergency medical service organization," "EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the meanings defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

"Investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the Revised Code.

"Emergency service telecommunicator" means an individual employed by an emergency service provider as defined under section 128.01 of the Revised Code, whose primary responsibility is to be an operator for the receipt or processing of calls for emergency services made by telephone, radio, or other electronic means.

"Forensic mental health provider" means any employee of a community mental health service provider or local alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board who, in the course of the employee's duties, has contact with persons committed to a local alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board by a court order pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code.

"Mental health evaluation provider" means an individual who, under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code, examines a respondent who is alleged to be a mentally ill person subject to court order, as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, and reports to the probate court the respondent's mental condition.

"Regional psychiatric hospital employee" means any employee of the department of mental health and addiction services who, in the course of performing the employee's duties, has contact with patients committed to the department of mental health and addiction services by a court order pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code.

"Federal law enforcement officer" has the meaning defined in section 9.88 of the Revised Code.

(10) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:

(a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;

(b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic image of a person under the age of eighteen;

(d) Any additional information sought or required about a person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a public office.

(11) "Community control sanction" has the meaning defined in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(12) "Post-release control sanction" has the meaning defined in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.

(13) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a "record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.

(14) "Designee," "elected official," and "future official" have the meanings defined in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.

(15) "Body-worn camera" means a visual and audio recording device worn on the person of a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer while the correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer is engaged in the performance of official duties.

(16) "Dashboard camera" means a visual and audio recording device mounted on a peace officer's vehicle or vessel that is used while the peace officer is engaged in the performance of the peace officer's duties.

(17) "Restricted portions of a body-worn camera or dashboard camera recording" means any visual or audio portion of a body-worn camera or dashboard camera recording that shows, communicates, or discloses any of the following:

(a) The image or identity of a child or information that could lead to the identification of a child who is a primary subject of the recording when the department of rehabilitation and correction, department of youth services, or the law enforcement agency knows or has reason to know the person is a child based on the department's or law enforcement agency's records or the content of the recording;

(b) The death of a person or a deceased person's body, unless the death was caused by a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer or, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the consent of the decedent's executor or administrator has been obtained;

(c) The death of a correctional employee, youth services employee, peace officer, firefighter, paramedic, or other first responder, occurring while the decedent was engaged in the performance of official duties, unless, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the consent of the decedent's executor or administrator has been obtained;

(d) Grievous bodily harm, unless the injury was effected by a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer or, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the consent of the injured person or the injured person's guardian has been obtained;

(e) An act of severe violence against a person that results in serious physical harm to the person, unless the act and injury was effected by a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer or, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the consent of the injured person or the injured person's guardian has been obtained;

(f) Grievous bodily harm to a correctional employee, youth services employee, peace officer, firefighter, paramedic, or other first responder, occurring while the injured person was engaged in the performance of official duties, unless, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the consent of the injured person or the injured person's guardian has been obtained;

(g) An act of severe violence resulting in serious physical harm against a correctional employee, youth services employee, peace officer, firefighter, paramedic, or other first responder, occurring while the injured person was engaged in the performance of official duties, unless, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the consent of the injured person or the injured person's guardian has been obtained;

(h) A person's nude body, unless, subject to division (H)(1) of this section, the person's consent has been obtained;

(i) Protected health information, the identity of a person in a health care facility who is not the subject of a correctional, youth services, or law enforcement encounter, or any other information in a health care facility that could identify a person who is not the subject of a correctional, youth services, or law enforcement encounter;

(j) Information that could identify the alleged victim of a sex offense, menacing by stalking, or domestic violence;

(k) Information, that does not constitute a confidential law enforcement investigatory record, that could identify a person who provides sensitive or confidential information to the department of rehabilitation and correction, the department of youth services, or a law enforcement agency when the disclosure of the person's identity or the information provided could reasonably be expected to threaten or endanger the safety or property of the person or another person;

(l) Personal information of a person who is not arrested, cited, charged, or issued a written warning by a peace officer;

(m) Proprietary correctional, youth services, or police contingency plans or tactics that are intended to prevent crime and maintain public order and safety;

(n) A personal conversation unrelated to work between correctional employees, youth services employees, or peace officers or between a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer and an employee of a law enforcement agency;

(o) A conversation between a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer and a member of the public that does not concern correctional, youth services, or law enforcement activities;

(p) The interior of a residence, unless the interior of a residence is the location of an adversarial encounter with, or a use of force by, a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer;

(q) Any portion of the interior of a private business that is not open to the public, unless an adversarial encounter with, or a use of force by, a correctional employee, youth services employee, or peace officer occurs in that location.

As used in division (A)(17) of this section:

"Grievous bodily harm" has the same meaning as in section 5924.120 of the Revised Code.

"Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 1337.11 of the Revised Code.

"Protected health information" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.

"Law enforcement agency" means a government entity that employs peace officers to perform law enforcement duties.

"Personal information" means any government-issued identification number, date of birth, address, financial information, or criminal justice information from the law enforcement automated data system or similar databases.

"Sex offense" has the same meaning as in section 2907.10 of the Revised Code.

"Firefighter," "paramedic," and "first responder" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Upon request by any person and subject to division (B)(8) of this section, all public records responsive to the request shall be promptly prepared and made available for inspection to the requester at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to division (B)(8) of this section, upon request by any person, a public office or person responsible for public records shall make copies of the requested public record available to the requester at cost and within a reasonable period of time.

When considering whether a state or local law enforcement agency promptly prepared a video record for inspection or provided a video record for production within a reasonable period of time, in addition to any other factors, a court shall consider the time required for a state or local law enforcement agency to retrieve, download, review, redact, seek legal advice regarding, and produce the video record. Notwithstanding any other requirement set forth in Chapter 149. of the Revised Code, a state or local law enforcement agency may charge a requester the actual cost associated with preparing a video record for inspection or production, not to exceed seventy-five dollars per hour of video produced, nor seven hundred fifty dollars total. As used in this division, "actual cost," with respect to video records only, means all costs incurred by the state or local law enforcement agency in reviewing, blurring or otherwise obscuring, redacting, uploading, or producing the video records, including but not limited to the storage medium on which the record is produced, staff time, and any other relevant overhead necessary to comply with the request. A state or local law enforcement agency may include in its public records policy the requirement that a requester pay the estimated actual cost before beginning the process of preparing a video record for inspection or production. Where a state or local law enforcement agency imposes such a requirement, its obligation to produce a video or make it available for inspection begins once the estimated actual cost is paid in full by the requester. A state or local law enforcement agency shall provide the requester with the estimated actual cost within five business days of receipt of the public records request. If the actual cost exceeds the estimated actual cost, a state or local law enforcement agency may charge a requester for the difference upon fulfilling a request for video records if the requester is notified in advance that the actual cost may be up to twenty per cent higher than the estimated actual cost. A state or local law enforcement agency shall not charge a requester a difference that exceeds twenty per cent of the estimated actual cost.

If a public record contains information that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the public record, the public office or the person responsible for the public record shall make available all of the information within the public record that is not exempt. When making that public record available for public inspection or copying that public record, the public office or the person responsible for the public record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to make the redaction. When the auditor of state receives a request to inspect or to make a copy of a record that was provided to the auditor of state for purposes of an audit, but the original public office has asserted to the auditor of state that the record is not a public record, the auditor of state may handle the requests by directing the requestor to the original public office that provided the record to the auditor of state.

(2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public office or the person responsible for public records shall organize and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made available for inspection or copying in accordance with division (B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a copy of its current records retention schedule at a location readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for copies or inspection of public records under this section such that the public office or the person responsible for the requested public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are being requested, the public office or the person responsible for the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by informing the requester of the manner in which records are maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary course of the public office's or person's duties.

(3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, the public office or the person responsible for the requested public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, including legal authority, setting forth why the request was denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person responsible for the requested public record from relying upon additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action commenced under division (C) of this section.

(4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no public office or person responsible for public records may limit or condition the availability of public records by requiring disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the requested public record. Any requirement that the requester disclose the requester's identity or the intended use of the requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.

(5) A public office or person responsible for public records may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing to the requester that a written request is not mandatory, that the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or the intended use, and when a written request or disclosure of the identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing the ability of the public office or person responsible for public records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought by the requester.

(6) If any person requests a copy of a public record in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office or person responsible for the public record may require the requester to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the requester under this division. The public office or the person responsible for the public record shall permit the requester to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, upon the same medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or person responsible for the public record. When the requester makes a choice under this division, the public office or person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of it in accordance with the choice made by the requester. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person responsible for the public record to allow the requester of a copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.

(7)(a) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a public office or person responsible for public records shall transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the copy. The public office or person responsible for the public record may require the person making the request to pay in advance the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.

(b) Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time after receiving a request, copies of public records by United States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission pursuant to division (B)(7) of this section. A public office that adopts a policy and procedures under division (B)(7) of this section shall comply with them in performing its duties under that division.

(i) A public office may limit the number of records requested by a person that the office will physically deliver by United States mail or by another delivery service to ten per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested records, or the information contained in them, for commercial purposes;

(ii) A public office that chooses to provide some or all of its public records on a web site that is fully accessible to and searchable by members of the public at all times, other than during acts of God outside the public office's control or maintenance, and that charges no fee to search, access, download, or otherwise receive records provided on the web site, may limit to ten per month the number of records requested by a person that the office will deliver in a digital format, unless the requested records are not provided on the web site and unless the person certifies to the office in writing that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested records, or the information contained in them, for commercial purposes.

(iii) For purposes of division (B)(7) of this section, "commercial" shall be narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.

(8) A public office or person responsible for public records is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of acquiring information that is subject to release as a public record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a justiciable claim of the person. As used in this division, "public record concerning a criminal investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the investigation were an adult" includes, but is not limited to, personnel files and payroll and attendance records of designated public service workers.

(9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist, a public office, or person responsible for public records, having custody of the records of the agency employing a specified designated public service worker shall disclose to the journalist the address of the actual personal residence of the designated public service worker and, if the designated public service worker's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a public office, the name and address of the employer of the designated public service worker's spouse, former spouse, or child, and any past, current, and future work schedules of the designated public service worker. The request shall include the journalist's name and title and the name and address of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of the information sought would be in the public interest.

(b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to journalist requests for:

(i) Customer information maintained by a municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social security numbers and any private financial information such as credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank account information;

(ii) Information about minors involved in a school vehicle accident as provided in division (A)(1)(gg) of this section, other than personal information as defined in section 149.45 of the Revised Code;

(iii) A request form submitted to a public office under section 149.45 of the Revised Code;

(iv) An affidavit submitted under section 319.28 of the Revised Code.

(c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for the general public.

(10) Upon a request made by a victim, victim's attorney, or victim's representative, as that term is used in section 2930.02 of the Revised Code, a public office or person responsible for public records shall transmit a copy of a depiction of the victim as described in division (A)(1)(ii) of this section to the victim, victim's attorney, or victim's representative.

(C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a public office or the person responsible for public records to promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this section or by any other failure of a public office or the person responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly aggrieved may serve pursuant to Rule 4 of the Ohio Rules of Civil Procedure a complaint, on a form prescribed by the clerk of the court of claims, to the public office or person responsible for public records allegedly responsible for the alleged failure. Upon receipt of the complaint of the person allegedly aggrieved, the public office or person responsible for public records has three business days to cure or otherwise address the failure alleged in the complaint. The person allegedly aggrieved shall not file a complaint with a court or commence a mandamus action under this section within the three-day period. Upon the expiration of the three-day period, the person allegedly aggrieved may, subject to the requirements of division (C)(2) of this section, do only one of the following, and not both:

(a) File a complaint with the clerk of the court of claims or the clerk of the court of common pleas under section 2743.75 of the Revised Code;

(b) Commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that orders the public office or the person responsible for the public record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(3) of this section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.

(2) Upon filing a complaint or mandamus action with a court under divisions (C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, a person allegedly aggrieved shall file with the court, in conjunction with the person's complaint or petition, a written affirmation stating that the person properly transmitted a complaint to the public office or person responsible for public records, the failure alleged in the complaint has not been cured or otherwise resolved to the person's satisfaction, and that the complaint was transmitted to the public office or person responsible for public records at least three business days before the filing of the suit. If the person fails to file an affirmation pursuant to this division, the suit shall be dismissed.

(3) If a requester transmits a written request by hand delivery, electronic submission, or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or class of public records to the public office or person responsible for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in this section, the requester shall be entitled to recover the amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court determines that the public office or the person responsible for public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section. Statutory damages are not available pursuant to this section to a person committed to the custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction or the United States bureau of prisons, or a child committed to the department of youth services as permitted in Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code.

The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred dollars for each business day during which the public office or person responsible for the requested public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by this section.

The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not award statutory damages if the court determines both of the following:

(a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a well-informed public office or person responsible for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section;

(b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for the requested public records would serve the public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.

(4) In a mandamus action filed under division (C)(1) of this section, the following apply:

(a)(i) If the court orders the public office or the person responsible for the public record to comply with division (B) of this section, the court shall determine and award to the relator all court costs, which shall be construed as remedial and not punitive.

(ii) If the court makes a determination described in division (C)(4)(b)(iii) of this section, the court shall determine and award to the relator all court costs, which shall be construed as remedial and not punitive.

(b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public office or the person responsible for the public record to comply with division (B) of this section or if the court determines any of the following, the court may award reasonable attorney's fees to the relator, subject to division (C)(5) of this section:

(i) The public office or the person responsible for the public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to the public records request in accordance with the time allowed under division (B) of this section.

(ii) The public office or the person responsible for the public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or receive copies of the public records requested within a specified period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that specified period of time.

(iii) The public office or the person responsible for the public records acted in bad faith when the office or person voluntarily made the public records available to the relator for the first time after the relator commenced the mandamus action, but before the court issued any order concluding whether or not the public office or person was required to comply with division (B) of this section. No discovery may be conducted on the issue of the alleged bad faith of the public office or person responsible for the public records. This division shall not be construed as creating a presumption that the public office or the person responsible for the public records acted in bad faith when the office or person voluntarily made the public records available to the relator for the first time after the relator commenced the mandamus action, but before the court issued any order described in this division.

(i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a well-informed public office or person responsible for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this section;

(ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for the requested public records would serve the public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.

(5) All of the following apply to any award of reasonable attorney's fees awarded under division (C)(4)(b) of this section:

(a) The fees shall be construed as remedial and not punitive.

(b) The fees awarded shall not exceed the total of the reasonable attorney's fees incurred before the public record was made available to the relator and the fees described in division (C)(5)(c) of this section.

(c) Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees.

(d) The court may reduce the amount of fees awarded if the court determines that, given the factual circumstances involved with the specific public records request, an alternative means should have been pursued to more effectively and efficiently resolve the dispute that was subject to the mandamus action filed under division (C)(1) of this section.

(6) If the court does not issue a writ of mandamus under division (C) of this section and the court determines at that time that the bringing of the mandamus action was frivolous conduct as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51 of the Revised Code, the court may award to the public office all court costs, expenses, and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the court.

(D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the provisions of this section.

(E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised Code. A future official may satisfy the requirements of this division by attending the training before taking office, provided that the future official may not send a designee in the future official's place.

(2) All public offices shall adopt a public records policy in compliance with this section for responding to public records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model public records policy developed and provided to the public office by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not limit the number of public records that the public office will make available to a single person, may not limit the number of public records that it will make available during a fixed period of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public records, unless that period is less than eight hours.

The public office shall distribute the public records policy adopted by the public office under this division to the employee of the public office who is the records custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the records of that office. The public office shall require that employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous place in the public office and in all locations where the public office has branch offices. The public office may post its public records policy on the internet web site of the public office if the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies and procedures for all employees of the public office shall include the public records policy of the public office in the manual or handbook.

(F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person for the same records or for updated records during a calendar year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the release of which is prohibited by law.

(2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:

(a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs paid to private contractors for copying services.

(b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a request for copies of a record for information in a format other than the format already available, or information that cannot be extracted without examination of all items in a records series, class of records, or database by a person who intends to use or forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special extraction request" does not include a request by a person who gives assurance to the bureau that the person making the request does not intend to use or forward the requested copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial purposes.

(d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or records services.

(3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, "surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.

(G) A request by a defendant, counsel of a defendant, or any agent of a defendant in a criminal action that public records related to that action be made available under this section shall be considered a demand for discovery pursuant to the Criminal Rules, except to the extent that the Criminal Rules plainly indicate a contrary intent. The defendant, counsel of the defendant, or agent of the defendant making a request under this division shall serve a copy of the request on the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other chief legal officer responsible for prosecuting the action.

(H)(1) Any portion of a body-worn camera or dashboard camera recording described in divisions (A)(17)(b) to (h) of this section may be released by consent of the subject of the recording or a representative of that person, as specified in those divisions, only if either of the following applies:

(a) The recording will not be used in connection with any probable or pending criminal proceedings;

(b) The recording has been used in connection with a criminal proceeding that was dismissed or for which a judgment has been entered pursuant to Rule 32 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure, and will not be used again in connection with any probable or pending criminal proceedings.

(2) If a public office denies a request to release a restricted portion of a body-worn camera or dashboard camera recording, as defined in division (A)(17) of this section, any person may file a mandamus action pursuant to this section or a complaint with the clerk of the court of claims pursuant to section 2743.75 of the Revised Code, requesting the court to order the release of all or portions of the recording. If the court considering the request determines that the filing articulates by clear and convincing evidence that the public interest in the recording substantially outweighs privacy interests and other interests asserted to deny release, the court shall order the public office to release the recording.

Sec. 2923.11. As used in sections 2923.11 to 2923.24 of the Revised Code:

(A) "Deadly weapon" means any instrument, device, or thing capable of inflicting death, and designed or specially adapted for use as a weapon, or possessed, carried, or used as a weapon.

(B)(1) "Firearm" means any deadly weapon capable of expelling or propelling one or more projectiles by the action of an explosive or combustible propellant. "Firearm" includes an unloaded firearm, and any firearm that is inoperable but that can readily be rendered operable.

(2) When determining whether a firearm is capable of expelling or propelling one or more projectiles by the action of an explosive or combustible propellant, the trier of fact may rely upon circumstantial evidence, including, but not limited to, the representations and actions of the individual exercising control over the firearm.

(1) Any firearm that has a short stock and is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand;

(2) Any combination of parts from which a firearm of a type described in division (C)(1) of this section can be assembled.

(D) "Semi-automatic firearm" means any firearm designed or specially adapted to fire a single cartridge and automatically chamber a succeeding cartridge ready to fire, with a single function of the trigger.

(E) "Automatic firearm" means any firearm designed or specially adapted to fire a succession of cartridges with a single function of the trigger.

(F) "Sawed-off firearm" means a shotgun with a barrel less than eighteen inches long, or a rifle with a barrel less than sixteen inches long, or a shotgun or rifle less than twenty-six inches long overall. "Sawed-off firearm" does not include any firearm with an overall length of at least twenty-six inches that is approved for sale by the federal bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives under the "Gun Control Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(3), but that is found by the bureau not to be regulated under the "National Firearms Act," 68A Stat. 725 (1934), 26 U.S.C. 5845(a).

(G) "Zip-gun" means any of the following:

(1) Any firearm of crude and extemporized manufacture;

(2) Any device, including without limitation a starter's pistol, that is not designed as a firearm, but that is specially adapted for use as a firearm;

(3) Any industrial tool, signalling device, or safety device, that is not designed as a firearm, but that as designed is capable of use as such, when possessed, carried, or used as a firearm.

(H) "Explosive device" means any device designed or specially adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of an explosion, and consisting of an explosive substance or agency and a means to detonate it. "Explosive device" includes without limitation any bomb, any explosive demolition device, any blasting cap or detonator containing an explosive charge, and any pressure vessel that has been knowingly tampered with or arranged so as to explode.

(I) "Incendiary device" means any firebomb, and any device designed or specially adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of fire, and consisting of an incendiary substance or agency and a means to ignite it.

(J) "Ballistic knife" means a knife with a detachable blade that is propelled by a spring-operated mechanism.

(K) "Dangerous ordnance" means any of the following, except as provided in division (L) of this section:

(1) Any automatic or sawed-off firearm, zip-gun, or ballistic knife;

(2) Any explosive device or incendiary device;

(3) Nitroglycerin, nitrocellulose, nitrostarch, PETN, cyclonite, TNT, picric acid, and other high explosives; amatol, tritonal, tetrytol, pentolite, pecretol, cyclotol, and other high explosive compositions; plastic explosives; dynamite, blasting gelatin, gelatin dynamite, sensitized ammonium nitrate, liquid-oxygen blasting explosives, blasting powder, and other blasting agents; and any other explosive substance having sufficient brisance or power to be particularly suitable for use as a military explosive, or for use in mining, quarrying, excavating, or demolitions;

(4) Any firearm, rocket launcher, mortar, artillery piece, grenade, mine, bomb, torpedo, or similar weapon, designed and manufactured for military purposes, and the ammunition for that weapon;

(5) Any firearm muffler or suppressor;

(6) Any combination of parts that is intended by the owner for use in converting any firearm or other device into a dangerous ordnance.

(L) "Dangerous ordnance" does not include any of the following:

(1) Any firearm, including a military weapon and the ammunition for that weapon, and regardless of its actual age, that employs a percussion cap or other obsolete ignition system, or that is designed and safe for use only with black powder;

(2) Any pistol, rifle, or shotgun, designed or suitable for sporting purposes, including a military weapon as issued or as modified, and the ammunition for that weapon, unless the firearm is an automatic or sawed-off firearm;

(3) Any cannon or other artillery piece that, regardless of its actual age, is of a type in accepted use prior to 1887, has no mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic, or other system for absorbing recoil and returning the tube into battery without displacing the carriage, and is designed and safe for use only with black powder;

(4) Black powder, priming quills, and percussion caps possessed and lawfully used to fire a cannon of a type defined in division (L)(3) of this section during displays, celebrations, organized matches or shoots, and target practice, and smokeless and black powder, primers, and percussion caps possessed and lawfully used as a propellant or ignition device in small-arms or small-arms ammunition;

(5) Dangerous ordnance that is inoperable or inert and cannot readily be rendered operable or activated, and that is kept as a trophy, souvenir, curio, or museum piece;

(6) Any device that is expressly excepted from the definition of a destructive device pursuant to the "Gun Control Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(4), as amended, and regulations issued under that act;

(7) Any firearm with an overall length of at least twenty-six inches that is approved for sale by the federal bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives under the "Gun Control Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. 921(a)(3), but that is found by the bureau not to be regulated under the "National Firearms Act," 68A Stat. 725 (1934), 26 U.S.C. 5845(a).

(M) "Explosive" means any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion. "Explosive" includes all materials that have been classified as division 1.1, division 1.2, division 1.3, or division 1.4 explosives by the United States department of transportation in its regulations and includes, but is not limited to, dynamite, black powder, pellet powders, initiating explosives, blasting caps, electric blasting caps, safety fuses, fuse igniters, squibs, cordeau detonant fuses, instantaneous fuses, and igniter cords and igniters. "Explosive" does not include "fireworks," as defined in section 3743.01 of the Revised Code, or any substance or material otherwise meeting the definition of explosive set forth in this section that is manufactured, sold, possessed, transported, stored, or used in any activity described in section 3743.80 of the Revised Code, provided the activity is conducted in accordance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations, including, but not limited to, the provisions of section 3743.80 of the Revised Code and the rules of the fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of the Revised Code.

(N)(1) "Concealed handgun license" or "license to carry a concealed handgun" means, subject to division (N)(2) of this section, a license or temporary emergency license to carry a concealed handgun issued under section 2923.125 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another state with which the attorney general has entered into a reciprocity agreement under section 109.69 of the Revised Code.

(2) A reference in any provision of the Revised Code to a concealed handgun license issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code means only a license of the type that is specified in that section. A reference in any provision of the Revised Code to a concealed handgun license issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, a license to carry a concealed handgun issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, or a license to carry a concealed handgun on a temporary emergency basis means only a license of the type that is specified in section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code. A reference in any provision of the Revised Code to a concealed handgun license issued by another state or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another state means only a license issued by another state with which the attorney general has entered into a reciprocity agreement under section 109.69 of the Revised Code.

(O) "Valid concealed handgun license" or "valid license to carry a concealed handgun" means a concealed handgun license that is currently valid, that is not under a suspension under division (A)(1) or (3) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, or under a suspension provision of the state other than this state in which the license was issued, and that has not been revoked under division (B)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, or under a revocation provision of the state other than this state in which the license was issued.

(P) "Misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year" does not include any of the following:

(1) Any federal or state offense pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or other similar offenses relating to the regulation of business practices;

(2) Any misdemeanor offense punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less.

(Q) "Alien registration number" means the number issued by the United States citizenship and immigration services agency that is located on the alien's permanent resident card and may also be commonly referred to as the "USCIS number" or the "alien number."

(R) "Active duty" has the same meaning as defined in 10 U.S.C. 101.

Sec. 2923.125. It is the intent of the general assembly that Ohio concealed handgun license law be compliant with the national instant criminal background check system, that the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, firearms, and explosives is able to determine that Ohio law is compliant with the national instant criminal background check system, and that no person shall be eligible to receive a concealed handgun license permit under section 2923.125 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code unless the person is eligible lawfully to receive or possess a firearm in the United States.

(A) This section applies with respect to the application for and issuance by this state of concealed handgun licenses other than concealed handgun licenses on a temporary emergency basis that are issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code. Upon the request of a person who wishes to obtain a concealed handgun license with respect to which this section applies or to renew a concealed handgun license with respect to which this section applies, a sheriff, as provided in division (I) of this section, shall provide to the person free of charge an application form and the web site address at which a printable version of the application form that can be downloaded and the pamphlet described in division (B) of section 109.731 of the Revised Code may be found. A sheriff shall accept a completed application form and the fee, items, materials, and information specified in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section at the times and in the manners described in division (I) of this section.

(B) An applicant for a concealed handgun license who is a resident of this state shall submit a completed application form and all of the material and information described in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides. An applicant for a license who resides in another state shall submit a completed application form and all of the material and information described in divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant is employed or to the sheriff of any county adjacent to the county in which the applicant is employed:

(1)(a) A nonrefundable license fee as described in either of the following:

(i) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for five or more years, a fee of sixty-seven dollars;

(ii) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for less than five years or who is not a resident of this state, but who is employed in this state, a fee of sixty-seven dollars plus the actual cost of having a background check performed by the federal bureau of investigation.

(b) No sheriff shall require an applicant to pay for the cost of a background check performed by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation.

(c) A sheriff shall waive the payment of the license fee described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section in connection with an initial or renewal application for a license that is submitted by an applicant who is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States or has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States, a retired peace officer, a retired person described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code, or a retired federal law enforcement officer who, prior to retirement, was authorized under federal law to carry a firearm in the course of duty, unless the retired peace officer, person, or federal law enforcement officer retired as the result of a mental disability.

(d) The sheriff shall deposit all fees paid by an applicant under division (B)(1)(a) of this section into the sheriff's concealed handgun license issuance fund established pursuant to section 311.42 of the Revised Code. The county shall distribute the fees in accordance with section 311.42 of the Revised Code.

(2) A color photograph of the applicant that was taken within thirty days prior to the date of the application;

(3) One or more of the following competency certifications, each of which shall reflect that, regarding a certification described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), (e), or (f) of this section, within the three years immediately preceding the application the applicant has performed that to which the competency certification relates and that, regarding a certification described in division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the applicant currently is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States, the applicant has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States, or within the ten years immediately preceding the application the retirement of the peace officer, person described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code, or federal law enforcement officer to which the competency certification relates occurred:

(a) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or program that was offered by or under the auspices of a national gun advocacy organization and that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;

(b) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or program that satisfies all of the following criteria:

(i) It was open to members of the general public.

(ii) It utilized qualified instructors who were certified by a national gun advocacy organization, the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.75 or 109.78 of the Revised Code, or a governmental official or entity of another state.

(iii) It was offered by or under the auspices of a law enforcement agency of this or another state or the United States, a public or private college, university, or other similar postsecondary educational institution located in this or another state, a firearms training school located in this or another state, or another type of public or private entity or organization located in this or another state.

(iv) It complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section.

(c) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion of a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer training school that is approved by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.75 of the Revised Code and that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section, or the applicant has satisfactorily completed and been issued a certificate of completion of a basic firearms training program, a firearms requalification training program, or another basic training program described in section 109.78 or 109.801 of the Revised Code that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;

(d) A document that evidences both of the following:

(i) That the applicant is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States, has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States, is a retired trooper of the state highway patrol, or is a retired peace officer or federal law enforcement officer described in division (B)(1) of this section or a retired person described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code and division (B)(1) of this section;

(ii) That, through participation in the military service or through the former employment described in division (B)(3)(d)(i) of this section, the applicant acquired experience with handling handguns or other firearms, and the experience so acquired was equivalent to training that the applicant could have acquired in a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), or (c) of this section.

(e) A certificate or another similar document that evidences satisfactory completion of a firearms training, safety, or requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or program that is not otherwise described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of this section, that was conducted by an instructor who was certified by an official or entity of the government of this or another state or the United States or by a national gun advocacy organization, and that complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;

(f) An affidavit that attests to the applicant's satisfactory completion of a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section and that is subscribed by the applicant's instructor or an authorized representative of the entity that offered the course, class, or program or under whose auspices the course, class, or program was offered;

(g) A document that evidences that the applicant has successfully completed the Ohio peace officer training program described in section 109.79 of the Revised Code.

(4) A certification by the applicant that the applicant has read the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force matters.

(5) A set of fingerprints of the applicant provided as described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code through use of an electronic fingerprint reading device or, if the sheriff to whom the application is submitted does not possess and does not have ready access to the use of such a reading device, on a standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.

(6) If the applicant is not a citizen or national of the United States, the name of the applicant's country of citizenship and the applicant's alien registration number issued by the United States citizenship and immigration services agency.

(7) If the applicant resides in another state, adequate proof of employment in Ohio.

(C) Upon receipt of the completed application form, supporting documentation, and, if not waived, license fee of an applicant under this section, a sheriff, in the manner specified in section 311.41 of the Revised Code, shall conduct or cause to be conducted the criminal records check and the incompetency records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code.

(D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, within forty-five days after a sheriff's receipt of an applicant's completed application form for a concealed handgun license under this section, the supporting documentation, and, if not waived, the license fee, the sheriff shall make available through the law enforcement automated data system in accordance with division (H) of this section the information described in that division and, upon making the information available through the system, shall issue to the applicant a concealed handgun license that shall expire as described in division (D)(2)(a) of this section if all of the following apply:

(a) The applicant is legally living in the United States. For purposes of division (D)(1)(a) of this section, if a person is absent from the United States in compliance with military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States and if prior to leaving the United States the person was legally living in the United States, the person, solely by reason of that absence, shall not be considered to have lost the person's status as living in the United States.

(b) The applicant is at least twenty-one years of age.

(d) The applicant is not under indictment for or otherwise charged with a felony; an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of abuse; a misdemeanor offense of violence; or a violation of section 2903.14 or 2923.1211 of the Revised Code.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) or (5) of this section, the applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony or an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of abuse; has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony or would be an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of abuse; has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a peace officer, regardless of whether the applicant was sentenced under division ~~(C)(4)~~ (C)(5) or (6) of that section; and has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing any other offense that is not previously described in this division that is a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year.

(f) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) or (5) of this section, the applicant, within three years of the date of the application, has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a peace officer, or a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of the Revised Code; and has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a peace officer or for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of the Revised Code.

(g) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(e) of this section, the applicant, within five years of the date of the application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing two or more violations of section 2903.13 or 2903.14 of the Revised Code.

(h) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) or (5) of this section, the applicant, within ten years of the date of the application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code.

(i) The applicant has not been committed to any mental institution, is not under adjudication of mental incompetence, has not been found by a court to be a person with a mental illness subject to court order, and is not an involuntary patient other than one who is a patient only for purposes of observation. As used in this division, "person with a mental illness subject to court order" and "patient" have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(j) The applicant is not currently subject to a civil protection order, a temporary protection order, or a protection order issued by a court of another state.

(k) The applicant certifies that the applicant desires a legal means to carry a concealed handgun for defense of the applicant or a member of the applicant's family while engaged in lawful activity.

(l) The applicant submits a competency certification of the type described in division (B)(3) of this section and submits a certification of the type described in division (B)(4) of this section regarding the applicant's reading of the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code.

(m) The applicant currently is not subject to a suspension imposed under division (A)(2) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code of a concealed handgun license that previously was issued to the applicant under this section or section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or a similar suspension imposed by another state regarding a concealed handgun license issued by that state.

(n) If the applicant resides in another state, the applicant is employed in this state.

(o) The applicant certifies that the applicant is not an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance as defined in 21 U.S.C. 802.

(p) If the applicant is not a United States citizen, the applicant is an alien and has not been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa, as defined in the "Immigration and Nationality Act," 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26).

(q) The applicant has not been discharged from the armed forces of the United States under dishonorable conditions.

(r) The applicant certifies that the applicant has not renounced the applicant's United States citizenship, if applicable.

(s) The applicant has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised Code or a similar violation in another state.

(t) The applicant is not enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry created under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) A concealed handgun license that a sheriff issues under division (D)(1) of this section shall expire five years after the date of issuance.

If a sheriff issues a license under this section, the sheriff shall place on the license a unique combination of letters and numbers identifying the license in accordance with the procedure prescribed by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code.

(b) If a sheriff denies an application under this section because the applicant does not satisfy the criteria described in division (D)(1) of this section, the sheriff shall specify the grounds for the denial in a written notice to the applicant. The applicant may appeal the denial pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code in the county served by the sheriff who denied the application. If the denial was as a result of the criminal records check conducted pursuant to section 311.41 of the Revised Code and if, pursuant to section 2923.127 of the Revised Code, the applicant challenges the criminal records check results using the appropriate challenge and review procedure specified in that section, the time for filing the appeal pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code and this division is tolled during the pendency of the request or the challenge and review.

(c) If the court in an appeal under section 119.12 of the Revised Code and division (D)(2)(b) of this section enters a judgment sustaining the sheriff's refusal to grant to the applicant a concealed handgun license, the applicant may file a new application beginning one year after the judgment is entered. If the court enters a judgment in favor of the applicant, that judgment shall not restrict the authority of a sheriff to suspend or revoke the license pursuant to section 2923.128 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or to refuse to renew the license for any proper cause that may occur after the date the judgment is entered. In the appeal, the court shall have full power to dispose of all costs.

(3) If the sheriff with whom an application for a concealed handgun license was filed under this section becomes aware that the applicant has been arrested for or otherwise charged with an offense that would disqualify the applicant from holding the license, the sheriff shall suspend the processing of the application until the disposition of the case arising from the arrest or charge.

(4) If an applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense identified in division (D)(1)(e), (f), or (h) of this section or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act or violation identified in any of those divisions, and if a court has ordered the sealing or expungement of the records of that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication pursuant to sections 2151.355 to 2151.358, sections 2953.31 to 2953.35, or section 2953.39 of the Revised Code or the applicant has been relieved under operation of law or legal process from the disability imposed pursuant to section 2923.13 of the Revised Code relative to that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication, the sheriff with whom the application was submitted shall not consider the conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication in making a determination under division (D)(1) or (F) of this section or, in relation to an application for a concealed handgun license on a temporary emergency basis submitted under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, in making a determination under division (B)(2) of that section.

(5) If an applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a minor misdemeanor offense or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act or violation that is a minor misdemeanor offense, the sheriff with whom the application was submitted shall not consider the conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication in making a determination under division (D)(1) or (F) of this section or, in relation to an application for a concealed handgun license on a temporary basis submitted under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, in making a determination under division (B)(2) of that section.

(E) If a concealed handgun license issued under this section is lost or is destroyed, the licensee may obtain from the sheriff who issued that license a duplicate license upon the payment of a fee of fifteen dollars and the submission of an affidavit attesting to the loss or destruction of the license. The sheriff, in accordance with the procedures prescribed in section 109.731 of the Revised Code, shall place on the replacement license a combination of identifying numbers different from the combination on the license that is being replaced.

(F)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (F)(1)(b) of this section, a licensee who wishes to renew a concealed handgun license issued under this section may do so at any time before the expiration date of the license or at any time after the expiration date of the license by filing with the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or with the sheriff of an adjacent county, or in the case of an applicant who resides in another state with the sheriff of the county that issued the applicant's previous concealed handgun license an application for renewal of the license obtained pursuant to division (D) of this section, a certification by the applicant that, subsequent to the issuance of the license, the applicant has reread the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force matters, and a nonrefundable license renewal fee in an amount determined pursuant to division (F)(4) of this section unless the fee is waived.

(b) A person on active duty in the armed forces of the United States or in service with the peace corps, volunteers in service to America, or the foreign service of the United States is exempt from the license requirements of this section for the period of the person's active duty or service and for six months thereafter, provided the person was a licensee under this section at the time the person commenced the person's active duty or service or had obtained a license while on active duty or service. The spouse or a dependent of any such person on active duty or in service also is exempt from the license requirements of this section for the period of the person's active duty or service and for six months thereafter, provided the spouse or dependent was a licensee under this section at the time the person commenced the active duty or service or had obtained a license while the person was on active duty or service, and provided further that the person's active duty or service resulted in the spouse or dependent relocating outside of this state during the period of the active duty or service. This division does not prevent such a person or the person's spouse or dependent from making an application for the renewal of a concealed handgun license during the period of the person's active duty or service.

(2) A sheriff shall accept a completed renewal application, the license renewal fee, and the information specified in division (F)(1) of this section at the times and in the manners described in division (I) of this section. Upon receipt of a completed renewal application, of certification that the applicant has reread the specified pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission, and of a license renewal fee unless the fee is waived, a sheriff, in the manner specified in section 311.41 of the Revised Code shall conduct or cause to be conducted the criminal records check and the incompetency records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code. The sheriff shall renew the license if the sheriff determines that the applicant continues to satisfy the requirements described in division (D)(1) of this section, except that the applicant is not required to meet the requirements of division (D)(1)(l) of this section. A renewed license shall expire five years after the date of issuance. A renewed license is subject to division (E) of this section and sections 2923.126 and 2923.128 of the Revised Code. A sheriff shall comply with divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section when the circumstances described in those divisions apply to a requested license renewal. If a sheriff denies the renewal of a concealed handgun license, the applicant may appeal the denial, or challenge the criminal record check results that were the basis of the denial if applicable, in the same manner as specified in division (D)(2)(b) of this section and in section 2923.127 of the Revised Code, regarding the denial of a license under this section.

(3) A renewal application submitted pursuant to division (F) of this section shall only require the licensee to list on the application form information and matters occurring since the date of the licensee's last application for a license pursuant to division (B) or (F) of this section. A sheriff conducting the criminal records check and the incompetency records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code shall conduct the check only from the date of the licensee's last application for a license pursuant to division (B) or (F) of this section through the date of the renewal application submitted pursuant to division (F) of this section.

(4) An applicant for a renewal concealed handgun license under this section shall submit to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides, or in the case of an applicant who resides in another state to the sheriff of the county that issued the applicant's previous concealed handgun license, a nonrefundable license fee as described in either of the following:

(a) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for five or more years, a fee of fifty dollars;

(b) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state for less than five years or who is not a resident of this state but who is employed in this state, a fee of fifty dollars plus the actual cost of having a background check performed by the federal bureau of investigation.

(5) The concealed handgun license of a licensee who is no longer a resident of this state or no longer employed in this state, as applicable, is valid until the date of expiration on the license, and the licensee is prohibited from renewing the concealed handgun license.

(G)(1) Each course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall provide to each person who takes the course, class, or program the web site address at which the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force matters may be found. Each such course, class, or program described in one of those divisions shall include at least eight hours of training in the safe handling and use of a firearm that shall include training, provided as described in division (G)(3) of this section, on all of the following:

(a) The ability to name, explain, and demonstrate the rules for safe handling of a handgun and proper storage practices for handguns and ammunition;

(b) The ability to demonstrate and explain how to handle ammunition in a safe manner;

(d) Gun handling training;

(e) A minimum of two hours of in-person training that consists of range time and live-fire training.

(2) To satisfactorily complete the course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section, the applicant shall pass a competency examination that shall include both of the following:

(a) A written section, provided as described in division (G)(3) of this section, on the ability to name and explain the rules for the safe handling of a handgun and proper storage practices for handguns and ammunition;

(b) An in-person physical demonstration of competence in the use of a handgun and in the rules for safe handling and storage of a handgun and a physical demonstration of the attitude necessary to shoot a handgun in a safe manner.

(3)(a) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the training specified in division (G)(1)(a) of this section shall be provided to the person receiving the training in person by an instructor. If the training specified in division (G)(1)(a) of this section is provided by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section, or it is provided by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(b), (c), or (e) of this section and the instructor is a qualified instructor certified by a national gun advocacy organization, the training so specified, other than the training that requires the person receiving the training to demonstrate handling abilities, may be provided online or as a combination of in-person and online training, as long as the online training includes an interactive component that regularly engages the person.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the written section of the competency examination specified in division (G)(2)(a) of this section shall be administered to the person taking the competency examination in person by an instructor. If the training specified in division (G)(1)(a) of this section is provided to the person receiving the training by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section, or it is provided by a course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(b), (c), or (e) of this section and the instructor is a qualified instructor certified by a national gun advocacy organization, the written section of the competency examination specified in division (G)(2)(a) of this section may be administered online, as long as the online training includes an interactive component that regularly engages the person.

(4) The competency certification described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall be dated and shall attest that the course, class, or program the applicant successfully completed met the requirements described in division (G)(1) of this section and that the applicant passed the competency examination described in division (G)(2) of this section.

(H) Upon deciding to issue a concealed handgun license, deciding to issue a replacement concealed handgun license, or deciding to renew a concealed handgun license pursuant to this section, and before actually issuing or renewing the license, the sheriff shall make available through the law enforcement automated data system all information contained on the license. If the license subsequently is suspended under division (A)(1) or, (2), or (3) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, revoked pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, or lost or destroyed, the sheriff also shall make available through the law enforcement automated data system a notation of that fact. The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall ensure that the law enforcement automated data system is so configured as to permit the transmission through the system of the information specified in this division.

(I)(1) A sheriff shall accept a completed application form or renewal application, and the fee, items, materials, and information specified in divisions (B)(1) to (5) or division (F) of this section, whichever is applicable, and shall provide an application form or renewal application to any person during at least fifteen hours a week and shall provide the web site address at which a printable version of the application form that can be downloaded and the pamphlet described in division (B) of section 109.731 of the Revised Code may be found at any time, upon request. The sheriff shall post notice of the hours during which the sheriff is available to accept or provide the information described in this division.

(2) A sheriff shall transmit a notice to the attorney general, in a manner determined by the attorney general, every time a license is issued that waived payment under division (B)(1)(c) of this section for an applicant who is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States or has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States. The attorney general shall monitor and inform sheriffs issuing licenses under this section when the amount of license fee payments waived and transmitted to the attorney general reach one million five hundred thousand dollars each year. Once a sheriff is informed that the payments waived reached one million five hundred thousand dollars in any year, a sheriff shall no longer waive payment of a license fee for an applicant who is an active or reserve member of the armed forces of the United States or has retired from or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the United States for the remainder of that year.

Sec. 2923.128. (A)(1)(a) If a licensee holding a valid concealed handgun license is arrested for or otherwise charged with an offense described in division (D)(1)(d) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code or with a violation of section 2923.15 of the Revised Code or becomes subject to a temporary protection order or to a protection order issued by a court of another state that is substantially equivalent to a temporary protection order, the sheriff who issued the license shall suspend it and shall comply with division ~~(A)(3)~~ (A)(4) of this section upon becoming aware of the arrest, charge, or protection order. Upon suspending the license, the sheriff also shall comply with division (H) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code.

(b) A suspension under division (A)(1)(a) of this section shall be considered as beginning on the date that the licensee is arrested for or otherwise charged with an offense described in that division or on the date the appropriate court issued the protection order described in that division, irrespective of when the sheriff notifies the licensee under division ~~(A)(3)~~ (A)(4) of this section. The suspension shall end on the date on which the charges are dismissed or the licensee is found not guilty of the offense described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section or, subject to division (B) of this section, on the date the appropriate court terminates the protection order described in that division. If the suspension so ends, the sheriff shall return the license or temporary emergency license to the licensee.

(2)(a) If a licensee holding a valid concealed handgun license is convicted of or pleads guilty to a misdemeanor violation of division (B)(2) or (4) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or of division (E)(3) or (5) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, subject to division (C) of this section, the sheriff who issued the license shall suspend it and shall comply with division ~~(A)(3)~~ (A)(4) of this section upon becoming aware of the conviction or guilty plea. Upon suspending the license, the sheriff also shall comply with division (H) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code.

(b) A suspension under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall be considered as beginning on the date that the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty to the offense described in that division, irrespective of when the sheriff notifies the licensee under division ~~(A)(3)~~ (A)(4) of this section. If the suspension is imposed for a misdemeanor violation of division (B)(2) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or of division (E)(3) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, it shall end on the date that is one year after the date that the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty to that violation. If the suspension is imposed for a misdemeanor violation of division (B)(4) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or of division (E)(5) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, it shall end on the date that is two years after the date that the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty to that violation. If the licensee's license was issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and the license remains valid after the suspension ends as described in this division, when the suspension ends, the sheriff shall return the license to the licensee. If the licensee's license was issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and the license expires before the suspension ends as described in this division, or if the licensee's license was issued under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, the licensee is not eligible to apply for a new license under section 2923.125 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or to renew the license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code until after the suspension ends as described in this division.

~~(3)~~(3)(a) If a licensee holding a valid concealed handgun license is enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code, the sheriff who issued the license shall suspend it and shall comply with division (A)(4) of this section upon becoming aware of the licensee's enrollment in the registry. Upon suspending the license, the sheriff also shall comply with division (H) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code.

(b) A suspension under division (A)(3)(a) of this section shall be considered as beginning on the date that the licensee is first enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry, irrespective of when the sheriff notifies the licensee under division (A)(4) of this section. The suspension shall end on the date on which the licensee is removed from the registry. If the suspension so ends, the sheriff shall return the license or temporary emergency license to the licensee.

(4) Upon becoming aware of an arrest, charge, or protection order described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section with respect to a licensee who was issued a concealed handgun license, or a conviction of or plea of guilty to a misdemeanor offense described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section with respect to a licensee who was issued a concealed handgun license, subject to division (C) of this section, or the enrollment of a licensee who was issued a concealed handgun license in the do not possess firearms registry, the sheriff who issued the licensee's license shall notify the licensee, by certified mail, return receipt requested, at the licensee's last known residence address that the license has been suspended and that the licensee is required to surrender the license at the sheriff's office within ten days of the date on which the notice was mailed. If the suspension is pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the notice shall identify the date on which the suspension ends.

(B)(1) A sheriff who issues a concealed handgun license to a licensee shall revoke the license in accordance with division (B)(2) of this section upon becoming aware that the licensee satisfies any of the following:

(a) The licensee is under twenty-one years of age.

(b) Subject to division (C) of this section, at the time of the issuance of the license, the licensee did not satisfy the eligibility requirements of division (D)(1)(c), (d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code.

(c) Subject to division (C) of this section, on or after the date on which the license was issued, the licensee is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of section 2923.15 of the Revised Code or an offense described in division (D)(1)(e), (f), (g), or (h) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code.

(d) On or after the date on which the license was issued, the licensee becomes subject to a civil protection order or to a protection order issued by a court of another state that is substantially equivalent to a civil protection order.

(e) The licensee knowingly carries a concealed handgun into a place that the licensee knows is an unauthorized place specified in division (B) of section 2923.126 of the Revised Code.

(f) On or after the date on which the license was issued, the licensee is under adjudication of mental incompetence or is committed to a mental institution.

(g) At the time of the issuance of the license, the licensee did not meet the residency requirements described in division (D)(1) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and currently does not meet the residency requirements described in that division.

(h) Regarding a license issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code, the competency certificate the licensee submitted was forged or otherwise was fraudulent.

(2) Upon becoming aware of any circumstance listed in division (B)(1) of this section that applies to a particular licensee who was issued a concealed handgun license, subject to division (C) of this section, the sheriff who issued the license to the licensee shall notify the licensee, by certified mail, return receipt requested, at the licensee's last known residence address that the license is subject to revocation and that the licensee may come to the sheriff's office and contest the sheriff's proposed revocation within fourteen days of the date on which the notice was mailed. After the fourteen-day period and after consideration of any information that the licensee provides during that period, if the sheriff determines on the basis of the information of which the sheriff is aware that the licensee is described in division (B)(1) of this section and no longer satisfies the requirements described in division (D)(1) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code that are applicable to the licensee's type of license, the sheriff shall revoke the license, notify the licensee of that fact, and require the licensee to surrender the license. Upon revoking the license, the sheriff also shall comply with division (H) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code.

(C) If a sheriff who issues a concealed handgun license to a licensee becomes aware that at the time of the issuance of the license the licensee had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense identified in division (D)(1)(e), (f), or (h) of section 2923.125 of the Revised Code or had been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing an act or violation identified in any of those divisions or becomes aware that on or after the date on which the license was issued the licensee has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense identified in division (A)(2)(a) or (B)(1)(c) of this section, the sheriff shall not consider that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication as having occurred for purposes of divisions (A)(2), ~~(A)(3)~~(A)(4), (B)(1), and (B)(2) of this section if a court has ordered the sealing or expungement of the records of that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication pursuant to sections 2151.355 to 2151.358, sections 2953.31 to 2953.35, or section 2953.39 of the Revised Code or the licensee has been relieved under operation of law or legal process from the disability imposed pursuant to section 2923.13 of the Revised Code relative to that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication.

(D) As used in this section, "motor carrier enforcement unit" has the same meaning as in section 2923.16 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2923.133. (A) As used in this section, "community service" has the same meaning as in section 3313.605 of the Revised Code.

(B) No person who is enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry created under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code shall knowingly purchase, possess, or transport a firearm.

(C) Whoever violates this section is subject to a civil fine of twenty-five dollars. The court may order the offender to perform community service in lieu of the civil fine.

Sec. 2923.20. (A) No person shall do any of the following:

(1) Recklessly sell, lend, give, or furnish any firearm to any person prohibited by section 2923.13 or 2923.15 of the Revised Code from acquiring or using any firearm, or recklessly sell, lend, give, or furnish any dangerous ordnance to any person prohibited by section 2923.13, 2923.15, or 2923.17 of the Revised Code from acquiring or using any dangerous ordnance;

(2) Possess any firearm or dangerous ordnance with purpose to dispose of it in violation of division (A) of this section;

(3) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, knowingly solicit, persuade, encourage, or entice a federally licensed firearms dealer or private seller to transfer a firearm or ammunition to any person in a manner prohibited by state or federal law;

(4) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, with an intent to deceive, knowingly provide materially false information to a federally licensed firearms dealer or private seller;

(5) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, knowingly procure, solicit, persuade, encourage, or entice a person to act in violation of division (A)(3) or (4) of this section;

(6) When transferring any dangerous ordnance to another, negligently fail to require the transferee to exhibit such identification, license, or permit showing the transferee to be authorized to acquire dangerous ordnance pursuant to section 2923.17 of the Revised Code, or negligently fail to take a complete record of the transaction and forthwith forward a copy of that record to the sheriff of the county or safety director or police chief of the municipality where the transaction takes place;

(7) Knowingly fail to report to law enforcement authorities forthwith the loss or theft of any firearm or dangerous ordnance in the person's possession or under the person's control;

(8) Knowingly sell, lend, give, or furnish any firearm to any person who is enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code if the offender knows the person is enrolled in that registry.

(B) Divisions (A)(3), (4), and (5) of this section do not apply to any of the following:

(1) A law enforcement officer who is acting within the scope of the officer's duties;

(2) A person who is acting in accordance with directions given by a law enforcement officer described in division (B)(1) of this section.

(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful transactions in weapons. A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of this section is a felony of the fourth degree. A violation of division (A)(3), (4), or (5) of this section is a felony of the third degree. A violation of division (A)(6) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (A)(7) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (A)(8) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(D) As used in this section:

(1) "Ammunition" has the same meaning as in section 2305.401 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Federally licensed firearms dealer" has the same meaning as in section 5502.63 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Materially false information" means information regarding the transfer of a firearm or ammunition that portrays an illegal transaction as legal or a legal transaction as illegal.

(4) "Private seller" means a person who sells, offers for sale, or transfers a firearm or ammunition and who is not a federally licensed firearms dealer.

Sec. 2923.22. (A) As used in this section, "photo identification" means a document that meets each of the following requirements:

(1) It shows the name of the individual to whom it was issued.

(2) It shows the current address of the individual to whom it was issued.

(3) It shows a photograph of the individual to whom it was issued.

(4) It includes an expiration date that has not passed.

(5) It was issued by the government of the United States or this state.

(B)(1) Within six months after the effective date of this section, the attorney general shall establish a do not possess firearms registry to prohibit the possession, sale, or transportation of a firearm to any person who voluntarily registers the person's self to be enrolled in the registry. The attorney general shall maintain the registry and shall promulgate rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the implementation of the registry.

(2) The attorney general shall develop and distribute a form to every clerk of a court of record in this state and to the department of health, the department of mental health and addiction services, and the state medical board to allow individuals to register on the do not possess firearms registry and a form by which a registered individual may request removal. The attorney general and the courts and agencies to which the form is distributed shall prominently display the form on the attorney general's, court's, or agency's web site. The form shall include, at a minimum, all of the following information:

(a) Information on the thirty-day waiting period after initial registration onto the registry, as well as information on the twenty-one-day waiting period after a request for removal is received by the attorney general;

(b) The legal ramifications of registration, including that registration may subject a person to laws of other states with analogous do not sell or do not possess lists or registries;

(c) The requirement that a person registering on the do not possess firearms registry turn over any firearms in the person's possession to a law enforcement agency within forty-eight hours of registration and how to do so;

(d) A space to indicate that the form was completed with assistance from a health care worker, mental health care worker, or social worker, and the name of the person providing that assistance to the person registering.

(3) Within six months after the effective date of this section, the attorney general shall develop an online platform, accessible through the attorney general's web site, by which a person may register on the do not possess firearms registry. The online platform shall do all of the following:

(a) Verify the identity of any person who registers or attempts to register;

(b) Prevent unauthorized disclosure of the identity or of any personally identifying information of any registering person;

(d) Provide an option for the person registering to receive a hard copy of the completed registration form in writing by mail or electronic mail;

(e) Provide an option to receive notification by mail or electronic mail of removal from the registry;

(f) Provide information on how to relinquish a firearm to a law enforcement agency.

(C)(1) A person may apply in writing to the attorney general to request voluntary enrollment in the do not possess firearms registry and, after being enrolled in the registry, may apply in writing to the attorney general to request removal from the registry.

(2) The attorney general shall not remove a person enrolled in the registry from the registry until twenty-one days after the attorney general receives the person's application for removal from the registry.

(3) A person submitting an application for enrollment in or removal from the do not possess firearms registry may submit that application to the attorney general by mail, via the online portal on the attorney general's web site, or in person to the office of the attorney general.

(4) A person who submits an application to the attorney general for enrollment in or removal from the do not possess firearms registry shall include with the application a photocopy or an electronic image of a valid form of photo identification.

(5)(a) A person who has enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry may petition the court of common pleas of the county in which the person resides for removal prior to twenty-one days after the attorney general receives the person's application for removal from the registry in the person's county of residence. The person petitioning for removal shall show, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the person is not likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety or to the person's self. Any public official or interested party may also present evidence during a proceeding under this division.

(b) The court of common pleas of the county in which the person resides shall determine whether or not the person is likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety or self not later than two court days following a proceeding under this division. The court shall immediately transmit notice of that determination to the attorney general. The attorney general shall remove a person from the registry, if directed to do so by the court, not later than twenty-four hours after receipt of that notice.

(D)(1) On enrolling a person in the do not possess firearms registry, the attorney general shall forward the person's eligibility to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm to the national instant criminal background check system and shall notify the person by mail or electronic mail that the person is enrolled in the registry. The attorney general shall continuously forward registry information to the national instant criminal background check system and to any other state that adopts an analogous voluntary do not sell or do not possess list or registry. Upon notice from any other state that has implemented an analogous do not sell or do not possess list or registry that a person has been enrolled in or removed from that state's list or registry, the attorney general shall update the do not possess firearms registry within one business day.

(2) If a person who has enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry is found to possess, transport, or receive a firearm while enrolled in the registry, law enforcement officials shall confiscate the firearm until the person is removed or unenrolled from the registry.

(E) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, the attorney general shall not remove a person from the do not possess firearms registry until twenty-one days after receipt of the person's request for removal from the registry. On removal of a person from the registry, the attorney general shall update that person's eligibility to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm to the national instant criminal background check system and shall destroy all records related to the enrollment in and removal of the person from the registry.

(F) Upon a person's removal from the do not possess firearms registry, the attorney general, courts, and any other law enforcement agency or office with a record of that person's registration shall destroy the records of that person's registration.

(G)(1) A law enforcement agency shall take possession of any firearm turned over to that law enforcement agency by a person registering on the do not possess firearms registry.

(2) A law enforcement agency that has taken possession of a firearm pursuant to a person's registration on the do not possess firearms registry may transfer that firearm for storage by the state highway patrol for the duration of the registration. The state highway patrol shall issue the law enforcement agency that originally took possession of the firearm a proof of transfer that includes the name and address of the person from whom the firearm was received and the serial number, make, and model or any other relevant description of the firearm. The state highway patrol shall notify the attorney general and the person registering that the state highway patrol then is in possession of the person's firearm.

(3) A law enforcement agency that has taken possession of a firearm as described in division (G)(1) of this section, or the state highway patrol if the patrol has custody of a person's firearm as described in division (G)(2) of this section, shall make a record of the firearm. Notwithstanding section 149.43 of the Revised Code, the record is confidential and is not a public record. The record and the information on it shall not be disseminated by any person, other than as required to do so pursuant to a court order. The agency or state highway patrol shall not submit the record or any information on it to any government entity for purposes of a centralized database and no government entity shall establish or maintain any centralized database including the record or any information on it.

Sec. 2923.221. (A) No person shall knowingly inquire as to whether another person is enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry created under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code for any purpose other than to determine that person's eligibility to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm.

(B) No person shall knowingly give false information or make a false statement with the purpose to enroll a person in or remove a person from the do not possess firearms registry.

(C) No person shall knowingly discriminate against another person with regards to the person's receipt of health care services, employment, education, housing, insurance, governmental benefits, or contracting due to that person not being enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry, being enrolled in the registry, or previously being enrolled in the registry.

(D) No person or entity shall knowingly, or negligently due to failure to perform a required background check, transfer a firearm to a person enrolled in the do not possess firearms registry.

(E)(1) Notwithstanding section 2929.24 of the Revised Code, an individual or organization guilty of an offense for violating this section shall not be subject to imprisonment, but to a fine alone.

(2) A violation of division (A) of this section is improper inquiry regarding the do not possess firearms registry, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(3) A violation of division (B) of this section is false statement to enroll or remove from the do not possess firearms registry, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(4) A violation of division (C) of this section is improper use of the do not possess firearms registry, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(5) A violation of division (D) of this section is improper transfer to a person on the do not possess firearms registry, a misdemeanor of the first degree. Notwithstanding section 2929.28 of the Revised Code, if the entity violating division (D) of this section is an organization, the court may impose a fine of not more than five thousand dollars.

Sec. 4731.058. The state medical board and the department of mental health and addiction services shall adopt rules to encourage licensees to inform the public about the do not possess firearms registry created under section 2923.22 of the Revised Code.

Section 2. That existing sections 149.43, 2923.11, 2923.125, 2923.128, and 2923.20 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

Section 3. The Attorney General shall implement and manage a public awareness campaign regarding the do not possess firearms registry, which may include online materials, printed materials, and public service announcements. At a minimum, the campaign shall include information about the do not possess firearms registry, how a person may register, and contact information for a person to obtain additional information about the registry.

Section 4. This act shall be known as the Suicide Self-Defense Act.

Section 5. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in this act:

Section 149.43 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by H.B. 265, H.B. 315, S.B. 29, and S.B. 109, all of the 135th General Assembly.

Section 2923.125 of the Revised Code as amended by both H.B. 281 and S.B. 288 of the 134th General Assembly.

Section 2923.128 of the Revised Code as amended by H.B. 281, S.B. 215, and S.B. 288, all of the 134th General Assembly.